[Best Useful Dumps] CompTIA Project+ PK0-003 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Youtube Update (Q1-Q40)

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New CompTIA Project+ PK0-003 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-40)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is an acknowledgement that risks may occur, but a response is in place to minimize the risk impact?
A. Acceptance
B. Mitigation
C. Avoidance
D. Enhancing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
The stakeholder has notified the project manager that new priorities have caused them to shift all of the business subject matter expert resources to a new project for one year. The BEST course of action for the project manager is:
A. Phase gate review.
B. Project cancellation.
C. Project completion.
D. Stage completion.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following would be included in the project transition plan?
A. Specifications used for quality control measurements.
B. Comparison of project deliverables with organizational strategic goals.
C. Maintenance responsibilities of the project deliverables.
D. Analysis of the project expenditures.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
The design activity of a project has the following cost attributes:
PV = 100,000 EV = 20,000 AC = 90,000
Based on this scenario, calculate the schedule variance.
A. -80,000
B. -70,000
C. 10,000
D. 120,000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A project has two resources scheduled to work 40 hours a week for four weeks, both at $85.00 an hour. One resource called in sick for 16 hours, while the other resource worked four hours additional. PK0-003 dumps Which of the following is the cost of the resources?
A. $25,840
B. $26,180
C. $27,200
D. $27,540
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
In the planning phase of a project, which of the following activities is performed?
A. Solicitation
B. Perform a feasibility study
C. Appoint a project team
D. Project Charter
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Schedule dependencies include: (Select TWO).
A. Successor activities
B. Risks
C. Constraints
D. Predecessor activities
E. Issues
F. Assumptions
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Which of the following conflict resolution techniques results in a lose-lose scenario?
A. Forcing
B. Confronting
C. Compromise
D. Negotiating
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In which of the following project organizations would the project management be handled by a marketing manager?
A. Matrix
B. Balanced
C. Projectized
D. Functional
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
When performing quantitative risk analysis, which of the following should be produced?
A. Control chart
B. Decision tree
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the project manager implementing when they allocate additional resources to a set of tasks that are in the critical path and are slowing down the project completion?
A. Crashing
B. Optimizing
C. Controlling
D. Fast tracking
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A project team member has identified a required change to one of their assigned tasks. The change would alter the order in which other tasks must be completed. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
A. Implement the change
B. Update the change registry
C. Document the change
D. Perform an impact analysis
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Resources for a project report to a project manager and a functional manager. The organizational structure is:
A. Matrix
B. Ad hoc
C. Functional
D. Projectized
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
In order to ensure higher commitment levels, estimates should be created, or approved by:
A. The person doing the work
B. The customer
C. The project manager
D. Key stakeholders
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following actions can be used to ensure the quality of project deliverables?
A. Analyzing performance information
B. Ensuring all vendors are ISO certified
C. Updating the risk register
D. A concise statement of work
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which of the following circumstances could lead to initiating administrative closure?
A. Project cancellation
B. Resource constraints
C. Contract closure
D. Changes in the critical path
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A project manager of a particular project receives formal notification that a vendor has gone out of business. New vendors with similar products at similar costs have been identified. PK0-003 dumps Which of the following should the project manager do FIRST?
A. Initiate RFQs to qualified vendors, update the project management plan and communicate the issue with the project sponsor following the project communications plan.
B. Undertake a make-or-buy decision analysis; communicate the issue with the project sponsor following the project communications plan.
C. Call a stakeholder meeting following the project communications plan to urgently review the project schedule; update the project management plan.
D. Communicate the issue with the project sponsor following the project communications plan, call a project team meeting to discuss alternatives and update the project management plan.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Due to unforeseen schedule blowouts, the project manager is forced to compress the next set of activities in order to avoid affecting the project delivery date. Which of the following techniques can be used to help achieve this? (Select TWO).
A. Fast tracking
B. Crashing
C. Delaying
D. Quality control
E. Scope reduction
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
Which of the following activities would be considered a project?
A. Providing on-going support of an organization\’s software product
B. Updating an organization\’s antivirus software
C. Directing a team of developers to create a software program
D. Any activity with the express purpose of generating revenue
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which of the following activity sequencing techniques uses nodes to symbolize activities and arrows to show how their dependencies are connected?
A. Critical Path Method
B. Arrow Diagramming Method
C. Critical Chain Method
D. Precedence Diagramming Method
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which of the following conflict resolution techniques involves a solution that partially satisfies all interested parties?
A. Confronting
B. Compromise
C. Avoiding
D. Forcing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is included in decision oversight?
A. Local, state, and federal laws
B. Change control board, committee consulting
C. Tollgate approval, project phase transition
D. Audit trails, retention, and version control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A project is having issues because uncertain events have occurred that were not tracked and planned for. This could have been avoided by using:
A. A risk register.
B. Change management.
C. An issues log.
D. A communication plan.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
An unexpected risk has been identified in a project. Which of the following actions should the project manager perform FIRST?
A. Add the risk to the risk register
B. Update the project probability / impact matrix
C. Submit a change request
D. Perform a risk qualitative analysis
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
A project is having issues because the team is unclear what they should be doing and who should be doing it. This could have been avoided by using:
A. A risk register.
B. Change management.
C. A communication plan.
D. An issues log.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A project team is reviewing the deliverables and identifies a deliverable no one on the team has experience with. The lack of expertise is identified as a risk. PK0-003 dumps The project manager decides, as a workaround, to contract with a third party.
This type of risk response is called:
A. Transference.
B. Avoidance.
C. Monitor and Prepare.
D. Acceptance.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A project is having issues because the time required to do the smaller work items in the project were underestimated.
This could have been avoided by using:
A. A WBS
B. Quality metrics
C. A scope statement
D. A budget
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A key stakeholder has requested a change to the delivery frequency of the risk register. Which of the following documents should be updated?
A. Communications Plan
B. Risk Register
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Change Log
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
The project manager is trying to determine what to present at a project kick-off meeting. Should a high- level project schedule be included?
A. It depends. Some stakeholders are not technical enough to understand them.
B. No. The project is likely to still be in the initiation phase which is too early for a project schedule.
C. Yes. Project schedules are required to ensure that stakeholders are bound to the scope.
D. Yes. High level project schedules are typically presented at a kick-off meeting.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
— Exhibit —
PK0-003 dumps
Click on the Exhibit button. Which of the following is the float of the path: start-A-D-end?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Five
D. Nineteen
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Which of the following would be used to facilitate communication to investors, customers, and the stakeholders throughout the project?
A. Scope boundaries
B. Status report
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Resource plan
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
While working on a project, a workaround is implemented to deal with an unforeseen event. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?
A. Continue with the project as planned
B. Update the risk register
C. Update the project management plan with information about the workaround
D. Assess the action taken to determine additional impacts to the project
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
A project manager is trying to ensure the quality of the design and reduce the number of potential defects. The project manager would like to use the fishbone diagram to perform this analysis. This type of modeling relies on:
A. Prioritizing the specific event.
B. Variance in the process over time.
C. Causes of a specific event.
D. Determining the number of events.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which of the following are lose-lose conflict resolution techniques?
A. Negotiating
B. Compromise
C. Confronting
D. Avoiding
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
The IT department is currently resource constrained managing daily operational tasks. However, there are a number of subject matter experts (SME) within the department who are critical to making the project succeed. PK0-003 dumps Which of the following should the project manager use to ensure the success of the project?
A. Engage a services company to deliver the project
B. Negotiate staff augmentation with the SME\’s managers
C. Recruit staff form the organizations strategy area
D. Perform a request for proposal
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which of the following can aid in the identification of trends?
A. Pareto charts
B. Ishikawa diagrams
C. Histograms
D. Run charts
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Which of the following does the Critical Path tell the Project Manager? (Select TWO).
A. Where potential delays in the project might occur
B. The earliest completion for project work
C. Activities that can be done in parallel
D. The allocation time for each person assigned to the project
E. The longest series of activities
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 38
Which of the following MUST be submitted as part of a project change request?
A. Request for information
B. Project charter
C. Updated detailed design
D. Financial impact analysis
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
Which of the following would be included in the Project Charter?
A. Communication activities
B. Problem statement
C. Cost baseline D. Activity plan
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
The key stakeholder requires the project manager to advance the completion date before funding runs out. The project manager has had problems with this stakeholder in the past and wants to document this request. Which of the following should the project manager do? (Select TWO).
A. Complete a project change request form.
B. Analyze the project impact.
C. Update the project scope statement.
D. Revise the scope management plan.
E. Monitor the work performance.
Correct Answer: AB

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[Best Useful Dumps] New CompTIA Network+ N10-005 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers Update Youtube (Q1-Q20)

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Latest CompTIA Network+ N10-005 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
A user’s laptop is unable to keep a stable network connection. Which of the following measures would MOST likely need to be configured?
A. SSID name
B. WAP encryption strength
C. WAP radio power
D. Channel overlay
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
WAP radio power is the signal strength through which you can specify the range from which you can stay connected to the network and access internet. Here, when the user is not able to maintain a stable connection then it is a problem with the signal strength for sure so you can try to increase the signal strength by increasing the radio power.

QUESTION 2
The Network Interface Layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds to which of the following layers of the OSI model? (Select TWO).
A. Network
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Physical
E. Data link
Correct Answer: DE

Explanation:
The network layer is responsible for packet forwarding including routing through intermediate routers, whereas the data link layer is responsible for media access control, flow control and error checking.

QUESTION 3
In which of the following layers of the OSI model would MAC addressing be found?
A. Network
B. Application
C. Data Link
D. Transport
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The ITU-T G.hn standard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of a selective repeat Sliding Window Protocol.

QUESTION 4
Several users from the finance department report that they are able to access the Internet, but unable to connect to their financial applications. The network technician is unable to ping the finance server. The technician decides to check the switch and determines that Internet access is working. Which of the following is a possible cause of the access issues?
A. Faulty cable
B. Remote management disabled
C. Improper VLAN assignment
D. Mismatched duplex
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Finance Server is placed in same VLAN which is assigned to finance users if they are able to access internet that’s means connectivity to switch is good, so we have to check the VLAN assigned to users.

QUESTION 5
A technician needs to ensure that traffic from a specific department is separated within several switches. N10-005 dumps Which of the following needs to be configured on the switch to separate the traffic?
A. Duplex settings
B. SNMP string
C. VLAN assignments
D. Spanning tree
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of end stations with a common set of requirements, independent of physical location. VLANs have the same attributes as a physical LAN but allow you to group end stations even if they are not located physically on the same LAN segment.

QUESTION 6
Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, how many usable IP addresses would be in that subnet?
A. 250
B. 254
C. 255
D. 256
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Subnet Mask however, determines the “class” of a Network. 255.255.255.0 is a “Class C” network.A class c network can host up to 254 pc’s

QUESTION 7
On which of the following OSI model layers would a MAC address be used?
A. Network
B. Data Link
C. Transport
D. Physical
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The ITU-T G.hn standard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of a selective repeat Sliding Window Protocol.

QUESTION 8
Joe, a user, has a computer that has a link light on his network interface card (NIC); however, Joe is unable to access the Internet. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?
A. Faulty GBIC
B. Faulty SFP
C. Cable is a crossover
D. VLAN mismatch
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
As user has link light on NIC that means he has connectivity with switch so he need to check his vlan assignment.

QUESTION 9
A network technician is troubleshooting signal problems with certain WAPs in an office and finds consistently high ping times across the units. Such an issue is called which of the following?
A. Latency
B. Attenuation
C. Crosstalk
D. Frequency hopping
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
During the high ping time users are using most of the bandwidth that causes latency so signal strength get affected by this.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following TCP/IP model layers does the OSI model Presentation layer map to?
A. Transport
B. Internet
C. Application
D. Network Interface
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The Application layer provides applications the ability to access the services of the other layers and defines the protocols that applications use to exchange data. There are many Application layer protocols and new protocols are always being developed.

QUESTION 11
A customer wants to keep cost to a minimum and has only ordered a single static IP address from the ISP. Which of the following must be configured on the router to allow for all the computers to share the same public IP address?
A. VLANs
B. PoE
C. PAT
D. VPN
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped toa single public IP address. N10-005 dumps The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses.

QUESTION 12
Which of the following LAN technologies is used to provide a MAXIMUM bandwidth of 1Gbps through singlemode fiber?
A. 10GBaseLR
B. 100BaseFX
C. 100BaseTX
D. 1000BaseX
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
1000BaseX identifies various Gigabit Ethernet physical layer standards as defined in IEEE802.3z, such as 1000BaseLX, 1000BaseSX, 1000BaseCX and 1000BaseLH. Basically, all standards included in 1000BaseX uses 8B/10B coding scheme with 8 bits of data and 2 bits of error-correction data. Each specification allows various cable (fiber or copper) lengths, and uses different cable media.

QUESTION 13
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?
A. Reservations
B. Lease times
C. Removing IPs from the active leases
D. Configuring the DNS options
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Reservations are permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not need to be statically configured.

QUESTION 14
Spanning-Tree Protocol is used with which of the following network devices?
A. Router
B. NIC
C. Switch
D. DHCP server
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The specification for STP is IEEE 802.1D. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network. Loops are deadly to a network.

QUESTION 15
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?
A. VLAN
B. Trunking
C. Spanning tree
D. Traffic filtering
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of end stations in a switched network that is logically segmented by function, project team, or application, without regard to the physical locations of the users. VLANs have the same attributes as physical LANs, but you can group end stations even if they are not physically located on the same LAN segment.

QUESTION 16
A user wants to connect seven PCs together for a game night. Which of the following should the user install to help with this task?
A. Media convertor
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Bridge
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
They connect multiple PCs, printers, servers and other hardware. Switches allow you to send information, such as email, and access shared resources, including printers, in a smooth, efficient, and transparent manner.

QUESTION 17
Which of the following defines the amount of time a host retains a specific IP address before it is renewed or released?
A. DHCP lease
B. DNS suffix
C. Subnet mask
D. DHCP reservation
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one-day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid.

QUESTION 18
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. N10-005 dumps Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?
A. Ping
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Tracert
D. Dig
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.

QUESTION 19
Ann, a new user, has a workstation that has connectivity to the printer located in her department, but cannot access the Internet. The result of an ipconfig command on Ann’s workstation is as follows:
IP address: 192.168.0.124
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.128
Default Gateway: 192.168.0.254
Which is MOST likely preventing the user from accessing the Internet?
A. Duplicate IP address
B. Incorrect gateway
C. Incorrect VLAN
D. Bad switch port
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
We usually give default gateway as an end device which is directly connected with ISP so in this case user has lost his connectivity with due to wrong default gateway configured.

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is the common port used for IMAP?
A. 25
B. 53
C. 143
D. 443
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The Internet Message Access Protocol (commonly known as IMAP) is an Application Layer Internet protocol that allows an e-mail client to access e-mail on a remote mail server. The current version, IMAP version 4 revision 1 (IMAP4rev1), is defined by RFC 3501. An IMAP server typically listens on well-known port 143.

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New Citrix CCA 1Y0-A28 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
You will be hiring someone to localize your e-commerce site in order to reach a specific audience. Which of the following is most essential for the person you hire to effectively complete the job?
A. The ability to communicate clearly with the team that created the site
B. An understanding of the scripting language and database type used on the site
C. An understanding of the language and culture of the audience you want to reach
D. An understanding of the importance of the just-in-time (JIT) process to the company
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are transitioning from a traditional “brick-and-mortar storefront that accepts credit cards to a new e-commerce storefront. Which payment method would be most appropriate during the transition?
A. Cash on delivery (c.o.d.)
B. Open Buying on the Internet (OBI)
C. Credit card with offline processing
D. Advance payment using check or money order
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which technology provides channel security (privacy and authentication) through encryption, and reliability through a message integrity check (secure hash functions)?
A. SET
B. SSL
C. HTTP
D. S-HTTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Marty included a banner ad for her online MP3 player store on a music download Web site. She found that 72 percent of users who visited the site via banner ad click through became customers. Which of the following is the term for this percentage?
A. Exposure rate
B. Purchase rate
C. Conversion rate
D. Click through rate
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Alcazar wants to host three Web sites on the same computer, and to use SSL for transactions on each site.
Which of the following methods for hosting multiple Web sites would be most suitable?
A. Use three separate ports.
B. Bind three IP addresses to the server.
C. Use three separate host header names.
D. Use server virtualization software to run multiple operating systems.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is the most effective option for detecting a site attack by someone who wants to modify your customer database? 1Y0-A28 dumps
A. Implementing a firewall
B. Using antivirus software
C. Using an intrusion detection system
D. Limiting the open ports on the system
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What is the name of the electronic funds transfer (EFT) system governed by the United States and designed to provide the clearing of electronic payments between banks?
A. The National Clearing House (NCH) network
B. The Automated Clearing House (ACH) network
C. The Receiving Depository Financial Institution (RDFI)
D. The Originating Depository Financial Institution (ODFI)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Nain is a front-desk receptionist at a large corporation. After a recent payday for the employees, Nain received a phone call from someone claiming to be an employee who was out-of-state on an assignment. This person asked Nain whether his check had been deposited, and to verify that the check was written to a specific account name and bank routing number. This occurrence may be a type of attack known as a:
A. phishing attack.
B. pharming attack.
C. denial-of-service attack.
D. social-engineering attack.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
The details of an e-commerce site order can be kept in memory, stored on the visitor’s computer or stored on the Web server. This ability to remember the details of an order is known as:
A. profiling an order.
B. tracking an order.
C. persisting an order.
D. filling the shopping cart.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The main purpose of monitoring e-commerce Web server resources and performance (including bandwidth, uptime, downtime and network usage) is to ensure:
A. site availability.
B. visitor satisfaction.
C. cost-effectiveness.
D. increased profitability.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A retail business that advertises and markets using traditional print materials has decided to expand its marketing reach and increase revenue by developing an online catalog.
Which of the following is the primary objective?
A. Personalizing the site
B. Creating an effective selling tool
C. Creating a visually attractive catalog
D. Converting the existing print catalog into HTML
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following describes a root certificate authority (CA)?
A. A CA that cannot be brought offline
B. A CA that has an unlimited validity period
C. A CA that uses LDAP to transmit its credentials to other CAs
D. A CA that signs its own certificate and certifies itself as legitimate
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is often used in place of photo identification and a signature whenever a credit card is used in an e-commerce transaction?
A. Billing address verification
B. The purchaser’s public key
C. Cookies deposited by the site’s shopping cart
D. Information verified by a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) company
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
The certificate authority (CA) cryptographically signs a certificate file with its private key. Anyone can verify the certificate signature with the public key. This is known as:
A. hash encryption.
B. binary-key encryption.
C. symmetric-key encryption.
D. asymmetric-key encryption.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
What is the name for a tax on goods that are shipped internationally?
A. Tariff
B. Sales tax
C. Tax barrier
D. Value-added tax (VAT)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
What is the result of an e-commerce HTTP server that processes the input queue at a rate equal to or greater than that of incoming requests?
A. A bottleneck occurs.
B. Network bandwidth decreases.
C. The server performs adequately.
D. The site visitor experiences a delay.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
According to the X.509 (ITU) standard, 1Y0-A28 dumps which of the following is a non-standard certificate field that can contain additional information such as date of birth?
A. Fingerprint
B. Extensions (v3)
C. Subject (User) Name
D. Subject Public-Key Information
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What aspect of e-commerce marketing most significantly differentiates the use of a niche marketing strategy from that of a global marketing strategy?
A. Advertising media choices
B. Common customer interests
C. Products and/or services offered
D. Geographic distribution of the customers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What is the term for using a single secret key to both encrypt and decrypt your data?
A. Hash encryption
B. Binary-key encryption
C. Symmetric-key encryption
D. Asymmetric-key encryption
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
An e-commerce site administrator believes that her site’s security has been compromised.
The most important participants of her recovery plan are the Web team, law enforcement and the:
A. marketing department.
B. certificate authority (CA).
C. server software publisher.
D. Internet Service Provider (ISP).
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which of the following site creation models would be most appropriate for a site needing customer relationship management (CRM) and personalization?
A. Online instant storefront
B. Mid-level online instant storefront
C. Mid-level offline instant storefront
D. High-level offline instant storefront
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
What is the first step in improving your Web server’s performance?
A. Upgrade the server’s CPU.
B. Upgrade the server’s RAM.
C. Monitor performance and create a baseline.
D. Determine the efficiency of the CGI applications.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
You have just developed a business-to-consumer (B2C) Web site that sells wetsuits for scuba diving. You want to partner with another company to start a banner ad program.
What sort of company would be the most effective choice for a partner?
A. A company that sells canoes and small boats
B. A company that sells wetsuits mainly to surfers
C. A company that sells tanks, masks and snorkels
D. A company that sells a different brand of wetsuits
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Tom has encountered a problem with the Apache server installation on his company’s server. Because he does not have an immediate solution to the problem, he should contact:
A. the Apache Help desk.
B. the Apache service staff.
C. the Apache live Help service.
D. the Apache user online forum.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which of the following is submitted to identify each person who handles evidence after a site infiltration?
A. Proof of delivery
B. Chain of custody
C. Server status report
D. Authentication record
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
In evaluating the various Web server, database and scripting-language options available for her company, Lindsay notices that Apache server, 1Y0-A28 dumps MySQL and PHP can be:
A. purchased separately.
B. licensed for a maximum of five years.
C. run on Microsoft Windows, Linux and Solaris operating systems.
D. easily administered by anyone with no Web application experience.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is the most effective strategy for conducting an opt-in e-mail marketing campaign?
A. Send e-mail messages once a day to initial contacts for the first two weeks.
B. Send e-mail messages once every two weeks to follow up on an initial contact.
C. Create an executable Java application as an e-mail attachment that describes the company.
D. Create an executable ActiveX application as an e-mail attachment that describes the company.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
To perform at the maximum level of security, digital certificates must be:
A. guaranteed by VeriSign.
B. issued by a trusted third party.
C. verified digitally by a notary public.
D. issued 30 days before the site goes live.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which of the following is a primary concern when configuring a shopping-cart system?
A. The initial connection cost
B. Compatibility with ODBC and ASP
C. Payment gateway support of SSL/TLS
D. Compatibility with the payment gateway
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which of the following can help customers complete purchases more quickly?
A. A well-planned site hierarchy
B. Detailed descriptions of products
C. Product testimonials from other customers
D. An RSS feed directing customers to a site blog
Correct Answer: A

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Real Latest Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-462 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
You are a database administrator for a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance. You need to ensure that data can be migrated from a production server to two reporting servers with minimal data to ensure that data on the reporting server is always accessible which solution should you use?
A. Database snapshot
B. Log Shipping
C. Change Data Capture
D. Availability Groups
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a hardware requirement for SQL Server 2012?
A. 6GB of hard drive space
B. 1GB of memory
C. 1GHZ CPU speed
D. a graphics card with 2GB video memory
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 to develop a database application. You need to create an object that meets the following requirements: Takes an input variable Returns a table of values Cannot be referenced within a view Which object should you use?
A. Scalar-valued function
B. Inline function
C. User-defined data type
D. Stored procedure
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database. The transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting database is only updated from the transactional database.
The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table:
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At 14:00 hours, you discover that pages 71, 520, and 713 on one of the database files are corrupted on the reporting database. 70-462 dumps
You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal.
What should you do?
A. Perform a partial restore.
B. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore each log backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
C. Restore the latest full backup.
D. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore the latest log backup.
E. Perform a page restore.
F. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most recent full backup.
G. Perform a point-in-time restore.
H. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
Correct Answer: H

QUESTION 5
You administer all the deployments of Microsoft SQL Server 2012 in your company. You need to ensure that an OLTP database that includes up-to-the-minute reporting requirements can be off-loaded from the primary database to another server. You also need to be able to add indexes to the secondary database.
Which configuration should you use?
A. Two servers configured in different data centers
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
One server configured as an Active Secondary
B. Two servers configured in the same data center
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode
One server configured as an Active Secondary
C. Two servers configured in the same data center
A primary server configured to perform log-shipping every 10 minutes
A backup server configured as a warm standby
D. Two servers configured in different data centers
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode
E. Two servers configured on the same subnet
SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
F. SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform transactional replication
G. SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform snapshot replication
H. Two servers configured in a Windows Failover Cluster in the same data center
SQL Server configured as a clustered instance
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 6
What is the minimum recommended amount of RAM for SQL Server 2012 Enterprise?
A. 512 MB
B. 1 GB
C. 2 GB
D. 4 GB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database.
The database is in the Simple recovery mode.
You schedule the following backup plan:
Full backup every day at midnight
Differential backups every hour on the hour, except at midnight
The database fails at 20:45 hours.
You need to use SQL Server Management Studio (SSMS) to begin restoring the database to a new server instance with a minimum amount of data loss.
Which options should you select on the Options page of the Restore Database window? (To answer, configure the appropriate option or options in the dialog box in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 8
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server.
When transaction logs grow, SQL Server must send an email message to the database administrators. You need to configure SQL Server to send the email messages.
What should you configure?
A. SQL Mail
B. An Extended Events session
C. Alerts and operators in SQL Server Agent
D. Policies under Policy-Based Management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database instance that uses transparent database encryption.
You plan to move the database from the current server to a new server by using Backup and Restore.
You need to ensure that the database can be restored to the new server. You also need to ensure that the database remains encrypted at all times.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 10
You have an index called Employee_IDX on the table Employees. Which of the following will rebuild this index online?
A. ALTER INDEX Employee_IDX ON Employees REBUILD WITH (ONLINE = ON);
B. CREATE INDEX Employee_IDX ON Employees REBUILD WITH (ONLINE = ON);
C. REBUILD ONLINE INDEX Employee_IDX ON Employees;
D. ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE Employee_IDX;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following file systems is supported for an SQL Server 2012 installation?
A. EXT4
B. NTFS
C. FAT16
D. EXT3
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You administer all the deployments of Microsoft SQL Server 2012 in your company. You have two servers in the same data center that hosts your production database. 70-462 dumps
You need to ensure that the database remains available if a catastrophic server failure or a disk failure occurs. You also need to maintain transactional consistency of the data across both servers.
You need to achieve these goals without manual intervention.
Which configuration should you use?
A. Two servers configured in a Windows Failover Cluster in the same data center SQL Server configured as a clustered instance
B. SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform transactional replication
C. Two servers configured in the same data center A primary server configured to perform log-shipping every 10 minutes A backup server configured as a warm standby
D. Two servers configured in different data centers SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode One server configured as an Active Secondary
E. Two servers configured in the same data center SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode One server configured as an Active Secondary
F. Two servers configured in different data centers SQL Server Availability Group configured in Asynchronous-Commit Availability Mode
G. SQL Server that includes an application database configured to perform snapshot replication
H. Two servers configured on the same subnet SQL Server Availability Group configured in Synchronous-Commit Availability Mode
Correct Answer: H

QUESTION 13
Which of the following SQL Server 2012 indexes is ordered independently of the actual physical order of the table data on which the index is based?
A. CLUSTERED
B. BITMAP
C. NONCLUSTERED
D. IND_ORDERED
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You develop a database for a travel application. You need to design tables and other database objects. You create a view that displays the dates and times of the airline schedules on a report. You need to display dates and times in several
international formats.
What should you do?
A. Use the CAST function.
B. Use the DATE data type.
C. Use the FORMAT function.
D. Use an appropriate collation.
E. Use a user-defined table type.
F. Use the VARBINARY data type.
G. Use the DATETIME data type.
H. Use the DATETIME2 data type.
I. Use the DATETIMEOFFSET data type.
J. Use the TODATETIMEOFFSET function.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You want to remove SQL Server Integration Services from a server running the Windows Server 2008 R2 operating system that also has the Database Engine and SQL Server Analysis Services installed. Which of the following tools can you use to accomplish this goal?
A. SQL Server Management Studio
B. SQL Server Configuration Manager
C. Add/Remove Programs in Control Panel
D. SQL Server Installation Center
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You are a database administrator for a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 environment. You want to deploy a new application that will scale out the workload to at least five different SQL Server instances. You need to ensure that for each copy of the database, users are able to read and write data that will then be synchronized between all of the database instances.
Which feature should you use?
A. Database Mirroring
B. Peer-to-Peer Replication
C. Log Shipping
D. AvailabilityGroups
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 default instance.
The instance is hosted by a server that has a local firewall configure D. The firewall only allows inbound connections on port 1433. The server only hosts a single instance of SQL Server. You need to ensure that the instance is configured to allow remote connections even if the SQL Server is unresponsive to client connections.
What should you do? Choose all that apply.
A. Enable inbound connections on TCP port 1434 in the Windows Firewall on the server.
B. Execute the following Transact-SQL command: sp_configure \’remote admin connections\’
C. Execute the Reconfigure command.
D. Execute the following Transact-SQL command: sp_configure \’remote access\’, 1
E. Restart the SQL Server Agent Service.
F. Enable inbound connections on TCP port 135 in the Windows Firewall on the server.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance.
You need to configure a new database to support FILETABLES.
What should you do? Choose all that apply.
A. Disable FILESTREAM on the Database.
B. Enable FILESTREAM on the Server Instance.
C. Configure the Database for Partial Containment.
D. Create a non-empty FILESTREAM file group.
E. Enable Contained Databases on the Server Instance.
F. Set the FILESTREAM directory name on the Database.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 19
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that has multiple databases. You have a two-node SQL Server failover cluster. The cluster uses a storage area network (SAN).
You discover I/O issues. The SAN is at capacity and additional disks cannot be added.
You need to reduce the I/O workload on the SAN at a minimal cost.
What should you do?
A. Move user databases to a local disk.
B. Expand the tempdb data and log files
C. Modify application code to use table variables
D. Move the tempdb files to a local disk
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You administer two instances of Microsoft SQL Server 2012. You deploy an application that uses a database on the named instance. 70-462 dumps
The application is unable to connect to the database on the named instance. You need to ensure that the application can connect to the named instance.
What should you do?
A. Use the Data Quality Client to configure the application.
B. Start the SQL Server Browser Service.
C. Use the Master Data Services Configuration Manager to configure the application.
D. Start the SQL Server Integration Services Service.
Correct Answer: B

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Best Microsoft MCSE2003 Messaging 70-341 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
You need to recommend which configurations must be set for each network.
Which configurations should you recommend?
To answer, select the appropriate configurations for each network in the answer area.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 2
An administrator recommends removing EDGE1 from the implementation plan and adding a new Client Access server named CAS-8 instead.
You need to identify which anti-spam feature will NOT be available on CAS-8.
Which anti-spam feature should you identify?
A. Connection Filtering
B. Sender Filtering
C. Content Filtering
D. Recipient Filtering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend which task is required to prepare Active Directory for the planned Exchange Server 2013 implementation.
What should you recommend?
A. On any domain controller in the Paris office, run setup.exe /preparead.
B. On any domain controller in the Amsterdam office, run setup.exe /preparead.
C. On any domain controller in the Paris office, run setup.exe /preparealldomains.
D. On any domain controller in the Amsterdam office, run setup.exe /preparedomain.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a design that meets the technical requirements for communication between Fabrikam and A. Datum.
Which three actions should you perform in fabrikam.com? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create a remote domain for adatum.com.
B. Exchange certificates with the administrators of adatum.com.
C. From EDGE1, create a Send connector that has an address space for adatum.com
D. Run the Set-TransportConfigcmdlet.
E. Run the Set-TransportServercmdlet.
F. From a Mailbox server, create a Send connector that has an address space for adatum.com.
Correct Answer: B,D,F

QUESTION 5
You are evaluating the implementation of a second Edge Transport server named EDGE2 in the Amsterdam office.
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that email messages can be sent by the organization if a single Edge Transport server fails. 70-341 dumps
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation?
To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 6
You need to recommend which type of group must be used to create the planned department lists.
Which type of group should you recommend?
A. Universal Distribution
B. Dynamic Distribution
C. Global Security
D. Universal Security
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to meet the technical requirements of the research and development (R&D) department.
Which two tasks should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a new global address list (GAL) and a new address book policy.
B. Modify the permissions of the default global address list (GAL), and then create a new GAL.
C. Run the Update AddressList cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
E. Create an OAB virtual directory.
Correct Answer: A,D

QUESTION 8
You are testing the planned implementation of Domain Security.
You discover that users fail to exchange domain-secured email messages.
You open the Exchange Management Shell and discover the output shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to ensure that users can exchange email messages by using Domain Security.
Which two parameters should you modify by using the Set-SendConnector cmdlet? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. tlsauthlevel
B. requiretls
C. ignorestarttls
D. tlsdomain
E. domainsecureenabled
F. smarthostauthmechanism
Correct Answer: B,E

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend which script the administrators must run to create the reports required to meet the technical requirements.
Which script should you recommend?
To answer, select the appropriate script in the answer area.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 10
You need to recommend which recovery solution will restore access to all of the mailboxes in AccountingDB if EX1 fails. The solution must restore access to email messages as quickly as possible.
Which recovery solution should you recommend?
A. On EX2, create a new mailbox database. Restore the database files, and then mount the database. Run the New-MailboxRestoreRequest cmdlet for all of the mailboxes in the database.
B. On EX2, create a new mailbox database. Restore the database files, and then mount the database. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet for all of the mailboxes in the database.
C. On replacement hardware, run setup /mode:recoverserver. Restore the database files, and then mount the database. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. On replacement hardware, run setup /mode:recoverserver. Restore the database files, and then mount the database. Run the New-MailboxRestoreRequest cmdlet for all of the mailboxes in the database.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend to a solution to deploy the Outlook app. Which three actions should you recommend performing in sequence?
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 12
You need to identify which business requirement will be met by implementing the planned hardware load balancer.
Which business requirement should you identify?
A. Minimize the hardware costs required for a load balancing solution.
B. Minimize the software costs required for a load balancing solution.
C. Minimize user interruptions if a service fails on a Client Access server.
D. Minimize user interruptions if a service fails on a Mailbox server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You need to resolve the search issue reported by the users in the New York office.
You restart the Microsoft Exchange Search service and discover that the active copy of the mailbox database has a content indexing status of Unknown. 70-341 dumps
What should you do next?
A. Rebuild the content index.
B. Run the Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet and specify the -manualresume parameter.
C. Restart the Microsoft Exchange Mailbox Replication service.
D. Run the Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet and specify the -catalogonly parameter.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You need to ensure that all of the email messages sent from the Internet to adatum.com are routed through the contoso.com organization.
What should you create in contoso.com? (Each corrects answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. a contact object for each adatum.com recipient
B. an internal relay accepted domain for adatum.com
C. a Send connector that is configured to point to the contoso.com transport servers
D. a Send connector that is configured to point to the adatum.com transport servers
E. an authoritative accepted domain for adatum.com
Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 15
You need to prevent several users in the Miami office from establishing more than two concurrent Exchange ActiveSync connections to the Exchange Server organization. The solution must affect only the users in the Miami office.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a new throttling policy that has the Organization scope.
B. Create a new throttling policy that has the Global scope.
C. Create a new throttling policy that has the Regular scope.
D. Run the Set-ThrottlingPolicyAssociation cmdlet.
E. Run the Set-ThrottlingPolicy cmdlet.
F. Remove the default throttling policy.
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 16
You need to recommend a temporary solution to reroute all of the outbound email messages through the Miami mail appliance during the planned replacement of the New York mail appliance.
What are three possible ways to achieve the goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)
A. Modify the value of the SmartHost of the Send connector in the New York office.
B. Increase the cost of the Send connector in the Miami office.
C. Increase the cost of the Send connector in the New York office.
D. Decrease the cost of the Send connector in the New York office,
E. Modify the value of the SmartHost of the Send connector in the Miami office.
F. Disable the Send connector in the New York office.
Correct Answer: A,C,F

QUESTION 17
You are evaluating a DAG design for the New York and Atlanta offices.
You need to ensure that all of the users in the New York and Atlanta offices can access their mailbox if the WAN link fails.
Which DAG design should you deploy?
To answer, select the appropriate DAG design in the answer area.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 18
You discover that one of the Client Access servers in the New York office does not trust the standalone CA.
You need to ensure that all of the users who have Windows Phone devices can connect successfully to their mailbox.
In which node should you install the root CA certificate?
To answer, select the appropriate node in the answer area.
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 19
You need to recommend changes to the network to ensure that you can deploy the planned Exchange Server 2013 infrastructure. 70-341 dumps
What should you recommend?
A. Transfer of the FSMO roles to a domain controller in the Chicago office.
B. Change the forest functional level.
C. Change the domain functional level.
D. Change the operating system on one of the domain controllers in the Chicago office
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
You need to identify which names must be used as the URLs of each virtual directory on the planned Exchange Server 2013 servers.
Which names should you identify?
To answer, configure the appropriate name for each server in the answer area.
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Correct Answer:
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Best Microsoft MTA 98-368 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-15)

QUESTION 1
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. “Redundant” Microsoft Azure applications are able to meet increased demand with consistent results in acceptable time window.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Highly Available
C. Fault Tolerant
D. Scalable
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Microsoft Azure storage solutions replicates “four” copies of your data within a single region. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. two
C. three
D. six
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. “Windows Server Active Directory” enables single sign-on, which simplifies user access to thousands of cloud applications on Windows, Mac and iOS devices.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. Microsoft Account
C. Active Directory Rights Manager
D. Azure Active Directory
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Match each Microsoft Virtual desktop feature to its definition.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate feature from the column of the left to its definition on the right. Each feature may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:
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Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 5
You manage Windows 8 Pro desktop and laptop computers.
Which volume types can you encrypt by using BitLocker?
A. dynamic volumes
B. simple volumes
C. virtual hard disks
D. software-used RAID
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your new Windows 8.1 computer is connected to your home wireless network. You want to share music and photos on your new computer with other members of your family. 98-368 dumps You want to avoid setting up separate user accounts for each member of your family. A single password for all the shared files will suffice.
Which Windows 8.1 networking feature satisfies these requirements?
A. Network Discovery
B. HomeGroup
C. Virtual Private Network
D. Broadband (PPPoE)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. You have a Windows 8.1 computer in a WorkGroup. To share the C:\Work folder and make it available to offline users, you need to use the “public” share option. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. advanced
C. HomeGroup
D. basic
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
The president of your university asks you to set up a service website for students who live in dorms. The website’s official launch date is in two days, and you do not have the resources needed to set up the server infrastructure and develop the system.
You need a cloud-based solution than can have the servers and storage available in two days.
Which Microsoft cloud solution achieves this goal?
A. Microsoft Intune
B. Microsoft Azure
C. Achieve Directory
D. Microsoft OneDrive
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is an example of the way in which a Trojan horse commonly spreads to other computers?
A. It inserts copies of itself into other computer programs
B. It traverses a network by exploiting a vulnerability
C. It pretends to be a document from a friend
D. It downloads from an infected web page
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which is a feature Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)?
A. manages Digital Rights Media (DRM) for digital media
B. provides a permissions system that works with any cloud-based storage solution
C. manages share and file permissions on all servers in enterprise
D. allow users to define who can open, modify, print, or forward a document
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Your company needs a service that eliminates a single point of failure on any provisioned service. Which feature can Microsoft Azure offer to lower the probability of a failure that disrupts business operations?
A. HDInsight
B. scalability
C. high availability
D. backup
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Your company uses Windows 8.1 work folders on personal devices. The devices are all registered in Microsoft Intune.
You need to enforce the following security requirements on the personal devices:
• Company data can be removed if an employee is terminated.
• Company data cannot be accessed if a devise is lost or stolen.
What should you do?
A. Enable selective wipe, and enforce a lock screen and password
B. Enable selective wipe, and secure files transfers with SSL
C. Enable selective wipe, and enforce encryption
D. Enforce encryption and enforce a lock screen and password
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. If you need to make storage space available for an update on a Windows Phone 8.1 device, you should use “Action Center” to move installed programs to and other data from the phone to the SD card. Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice than makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. File Explorer
C. Phone Update
D. Storage Sense
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Your sister is taking a video editing class at school. She purchased a 2-TB USB hard drive to store video files. She wants to connect it to her Windows 8.1 computer at home and to a Mac OSX 10.3 computer at school. Video file will exceed 5 GB in size. 98-368 dumps
You need to prepare a new hard drive by formatting it with the appropriate file system.
Which file system should you choose?
A. FAT
B. ReFS
C. NTFS
D. FAT32
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What are two ways to lower the risk of a virus or malware infection? Choose two.
A. Enable the Windows firewall
B. Use only HTTPS while web surfing
C. Keep the system updated
D. Install a download manager
Correct Answer: AC

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Latest Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-365 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which RAID level mirrors a set of disks and then stripes across the disks?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two locations can a Windows Server be backed up to? (Choose two)
A. Network router
B. Local drive
C. Local DFS root share
D. Remote share folder
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which file extension indicates a Hyper-V virtual disk file?
A. . xml
B. . vhd
C. ,vud
D. . vsd
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two specifications are included in Microsoft’s hardware requirements for Windows Server? (Choose two)
A. USB ports
B. RAM
C. Processor speed
D. Disk I/O
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
You create a new domain. Which two Active Directory objects will be available by default? (Choose two)
A. Computer
B. Employee
C. User
D. Device
E. Server
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
Which snap-in is used to create files that contain information about the state of your server’s resources at a given time?
A. Reliability and Performance Monitor
B. Event Viewer
C. Services
D. System Monitor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have an Active Directory infrastructure that contains one domain and seven domain controllers. 98-365 dumps How many forests can you have without creating any trusts?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 7
D. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You turn on a computer.
What happens first?
A. The operating system is loaded.
B. The boot sector is accessed.
C. The BIOS is loaded.
D. The Master Boot Record (MBR) is accessed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are logged in as an administrator- You need to recover company documents created by a person who has left the company. You get an “Access Denied” message when you try to access the folder.
What is the first step you should take to access the documents?
A. Disable inheritance
B. Take ownership
C. Enable sharing
D. Remove the “Read-Only” Attribute
E. Enable offline files
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What should you use to prevent power spikes from harming a server?
A. Power supply unit
B. Hot-swappable power supply
C. Dedicated surge protector
D. Line conditioner
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
The Security log in Event Viewer shows information regarding server reboots.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select ‘No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Application
B. Setup
C. System
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Active Directory Distribution groups can only be assigned permissions to resources within the same domain but can have members from other domains.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select ‘No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Global groups
B. Universal groups
C. Domain local groups
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You maintain backup schedules for a Windows Server 2008 R2 server. Some users store vital information on their local hard drives. 98-365 dumps
You need to perform nightly backups that include this data.
Which built-in process should you use?
A. Agent backup
B. Folder redirection
C. Local backup schedules
D. System state data backup
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Microsoft App-V can make applications available to end user computers without having to install the applications on those computers.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select ‘No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. DirectAccess
C. Windows Deployment Services
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
You are an IT technician for a company that has an environment consisting entirely of Windows 2008Server R2 and Windows 7 laptops.
You need to establish a secure method that allows employees to work remotely but still have access to the internal network resources.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)
A. Offline Files
B. DirectAccess
C. Network Access Protection (NAP)
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
E. DFS Namespace
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
A system error window keeps displaying.
Where do you find detailed information about that error?
A. Event Viewer
B. Resource Monitor
C. Task Manager
D. Device Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Match each troubleshooting utility to its description. (To answer, drag the appropriate utility from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each utility may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.)
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 18
You create a user account named user1 and an Active Directory Domain Services group named RDGroup in Active Directory Domain Services. The lab environment is shown in the following image:
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Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement. 98-365 dumps Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
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Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 19
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
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Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 20
Which tool would you use to retrieve detailed information about a significant occurrence in a computer system?
A. Event Viewer
B. System Information
C. System Monitor
D. Resource Monitor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
You need to create a group that includes users from different domains in a single forest. You also need to enable the group to access resources in any domain in the forest.
Which type of group should you create?
A. Workgroup
B. Local group
C. Universal group
D. Global group
E. Domain Local group
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
You want to receive a notification when your server’s processor exceeds 80 percent utilization.
You should create a:
A. Performance Alert.
B. Scheduled task.
C. Performance Log.
D. Performance counter.
E. System Event.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which technology is designed to host calendars, contacts, and e-mail on the server?
A. Microsoft Host Integration Server
B. Microsoft Expression Studio
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Microsoft Exchange Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Disk mirroring occurs when data is:
A. Duplicated on the same disk.
B. Backed up by using parity.
C. Duplicated on separate disks.
D. Split between disks.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which technology is designed to help teams collaborate?
A. Microsoft SharePoint Server
B. Microsoft System Center Operations Manager
C. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager
D. Microsoft BizTalk Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which type of license is required to connect remotely to an application?
A. Windows Server External Connector License
B. Remote Desktop Services Client Access License
C. System Center Operations Manager Client Management License
D. Remote Server Application License
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which technology is designed to host calendars, contacts, and e-mail on the server?
A. Microsoft Host Integration Server
B. Microsoft Expression Studio
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Microsoft Exchange Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which is used to verify that a secure Web site is legitimate?
A. Active Directory
B. Enterprise trust
C. Private key
D. Digital certificate
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
One advantage of application virtualization is:
A. Fewer operating system updates.
B. Improved collaboration.
C. Reduced network traffic.
D. Reduced client administrative overhead.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Which type of folder permissions takes precedence?
A. Explicit Deny permissions
B. Explicit Allow permissions
C. Inherited Deny permissions
D. Inherited Allow permissions
Correct Answer: B

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Best Microsoft Windows Server 2012 74-409 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-15)

QUESTION 1
You administer a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. You deploy a new virtual machine. You add two virtual network adapters to the virtual machine. You need to ensure that the virtual machine maintains network connectivity if one virtual network adapter fails.
What should you do?
A. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Enable-VMReplication.
B. Enable Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Guard.
C. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Set-VMHost.
D. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Set-VMNetworkAdapter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You administer a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 that has the Hyper-V role installed. You plan to apply an update to a virtual machine (VM). You have the following requirements:
• You must be able to quickly revert back to a pre-update state.
• The solution must minimize storage requirements on the server.
You need to apply the update. What should you do?
A. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet New-VirtualDiskClone.
B. Create a checkpoint of the VM.
C. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Export-VMSnapshot.
D. Export the VM.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A company has Windows Server 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. The guest virtual machines are configured as follows:
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You need to ensure that the environment supports online virtual hard disk resizing.
What should you do?
A. Convert the virtual machines to Generation 2 virtual machines.
B. Deploy clustered storage spaces.
C. Convert the drive format of the virtual machines to the VHDX file format.
D. Deploy Serial Attached SCSI (SAS).
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Requirements
The following functionality is required for resizing a virtual hard disk:
· A server capable of running Hyper-V. The server must have processor support for hardware virtualization. The Hyper-V role must be installed.
· A user account that is a member of the local Hyper-V Administrators group or the Administrators group.
The following functionality is required for resizing a virtual hard disk:
· VHDX – the ability to expand and shrink virtual hard disks is exclusive to virtual hard disks that are using the .vhdx file format. Online resizing is supported for VHDX disk types, including fixed, differencing, and dynamic disks. Virtual hard disks that use the .vhd file format are not supported for resizing operations.
· SCSI controller – the ability to expand or shrink the capacity of a virtual hard disk is exclusive to .vhdx files that are attached to a SCSI controller. VHDX files that are attached to an IDE controller are not supported.

QUESTION 4
A Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V host server has four network adapters that are connected to two different network switches. 74-409 dumps The server contains a virtual machine named NYC-WEB.
You have the following requirements:
• increase the available bandwidth for NYC-WEB
• implement network fault tolerance for NYC-WEB without modifying network switch configurations
• use the least amount of administrative effort
You need to configure the Hyper-V environment. What should you do first?
A. Enable NIC teaming. Configure the team to use Static Teaming mode.
B. Enable NIC teaming. Configure the team to use Switch Independent mode.
C. Enable Bandwidth Management on NYC-WEB.
D. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-NetLbfoTeam -Name Team1 -TeamingMode Static.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A company plans to create a Hyper-V environment that will contain three virtual machines (VMs). A limited amount of storage space is available to host the VMs.
The VMs will be configured as follows:
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You must maximize disk performance.
You need to recommend a storage solution.
Which type of virtual disk type should you configure for each VM?
A. pass-through
B. fixed
C. dynamically expanding
D. differencing
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Virtual Disk Types
There are considerations for using virtual disks, and what types of virtual disks are available:
• Fixed–The VHD image file is pre-allocated on the backing store for the maximum size requested.
• Expandable–Also known as “dynamic”, “dynamically expandable”, and “sparse”, the VHD image file uses only as much space on the backing store as needed to store the actual data the virtual disk currently contains. When creating this type of virtual disk, the VHD API does not test for free space on the physical disk based on the maximum size requested, therefore it is possible to successfully create a dynamic virtual disk with a maximum size larger than the available physical disk free space.
Note The maximum size of a dynamic virtual disk is 2,040 GB. · Differencing–A parent virtual disk is used as the basis of this type, with any subsequent writes written to the virtual disk as differences to the new differencing VHD image file, and the parent VHD image file is not modified. For example, if you have a cleaninstall system boot operating system virtual disk as a parent and designate the differencing virtual disk as the current virtual disk for the system to use. then the operating system on the parent virtual disk stays in its original state for quick recovery or for quickly creating more boot images based on additional differencing virtual disks.
Note The maximum size of a differencing virtual disk is 2,040 GB.
All virtual disk types have a minimum size of 3 MB.
With Pass-through disks, you lose all of the benefits of VHD files such as portability, snap- shotting and thin provisioning.
Performance is marginally better than that of VHD files.

QUESTION 6
A company has servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The company has one Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain.
A user reports that USB devices are not redirected when he uses the Virtual Machine Connection tool to connect to a virtual machine. USB device redirection works for other users that connect to this VM.
You need to ensure that USB devices are redirected for all users when they connect to this VM.
What should you do?
A. Add the user as a member of the Administrators group on the VM.
B. Ensure that the Allow enhanced session mode setting is set to Enabled on the VM.
C. Ensure that the Remote Desktop Services service is running on the VM.
D. Add the user as a member of the Administrators group on the AD DS domain.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Re-direction works for other users on this VM. This means that Enhanced Session Mode is already enabled on the server and VM.
Additionally, Remote Desktop Services needs to be running, and the user account you use to sign in to the virtual machine needs to be a member of the Remote Desktop Users local group or the local Administrators group.

QUESTION 7
A company has seven Windows Server 2012 R2 virtual machines (VMs). The VMs are running and are accessible over the network. You plan to copy a large .ISO file from the host server to each of the VMs.
The copy operations must meet the following requirements:
• The VMs must remain accessible over the network during the copy operations.
• The copy operations must NOT use a network connection.
You need to configure the VMs. What should you do on each VM?
A. Enable the Guest services integration service.
B. Enable the Data Exchange integration service.
C. Add a network adapter, and then enable the virtual machine queue (VMQ) option on the adapters.
D. Set the value of the Smart Paging File Location property to %SYSTEMROOT%\temp.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Q: What is the new Guest services integration service in Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V?
A: Several integration services are available for virtual machines (VMs) such as time synchronization, heartbeat, backup, OS shutdown, and data exchange. In Windows Server 2012 R2, a new integration service has been added, Guest services. Guest services enables the copying of files to a VM using WMI APIs or using the new Copy-VMFile Windows PowerShell cmdlet.

QUESTION 8
A company has one central data center and five branch offices. Each office has three Hyper-V host servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter edition.
Each branch office has a system administrator. You plan to deploy virtual machines (VMs) that run Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard edition to each branch office.
You have the following requirements:
• The VMs must be activated at the branch offices, even if the branch office has no Internet connectivity.
• Activation keys must NOT be shared with the branch office administrators.
• You must be able to track license usage from the central location, even without access rights to the VMs.
• You must be able to verify license compliance and perform real time reporting on license usage from a central location.
You need to configure licensing and activation for the VMs.
Which feature or tool should you use?
A. Multiple Activation Key (MAK)
B. Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT)
C. Key Management Service (KMS)
D. Automatic Virtual Machine Activation (AVMA)
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Automatic Virtual Machine Activation (AVMA) acts as a proof-of-purchase mechanism, helping to ensure that Windows products are used in accordance with the Product Use Rights and Microsoft Software License Terms.
AVMA lets you install virtual machines on a properly activated Windows server without having to manage product keys for each individual virtual machine, even in disconnected environments. AVMA binds the virtual machine activation to the licensed virtualization server and activates the virtual machine when it starts up.
AVMA also provides real-time reporting on usage and historical data on the license state of the virtual machine.
Reporting and tracking data is available on the virtualization server.

QUESTION 9
A company consolidates multiple data centers into a single centralized datacenter by using a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed.
You must be able to support chargeback based on the usage of the following resources:
• average CPU usage per virtual machine (VM)
• average physical memory used by a VM over a period of time
• highest amount of memory assigned to a VM over a period of time
• highest amount of disk spaced assigned to a VM over a period of time
You need to track the resources without installing any additional tools.
Which tool should you use?
A. Process Explorer
B. Resource Metering
C. Reliability Monitor
D. Resource Monitor
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A company has a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V host server named NYC-HOST1 that hosts a virtual machine (VM) named NYC-VM1.
A critical security update must be applied immediately to NYC-VM1. There is no time to test the update before deployment. You must minimize the amount of time needed to restore the VM. You need to capture the state of NYC-VM1 before you install the critical security update.
What should you do?
A. From Hyper-V Manager, select NYC-VM1, and then create a checkpoint.
B. Run the Windows PowerShell command Save-VM NYC-VM1.
C. Run the Windows PowerShell command Get-VMSnapshot NYC-VM1.
D. Run the Windows PowerShell command Export-VMSnapshot NYC-VM1.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
A checkpoint is the Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V name for a snapshot. A snapshot will save the state of the VM.

QUESTION 11
You administer a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V host server that contains production and test virtual machines (VMs). You plan to optimize the performance of the VMs.
The following settings must be applied to the VMs:
• You must set a maximum value for the input/output operations per second (IOPS) on the test VMs.
• You must set a minimum value for the IOPS on the production VMs.
You need to configure the environment. What should you do?
A. On all VMs, enable Network Quality of Service (QoS).
B. Create a shared virtual hard disk (VHD).
C. On the Hyper-V host server, enable Resource Metering.
D. On all VMs, enable Storage Quality of Service (QoS).
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A company has a Windows Server 2012 R2 server that has the Hyper-V role installed. The server has a single processor and a single 10-gigabit network interface card (NIC). 74-409 dumps 12 virtual machines (VMs) run on the server.
You need to configure Hyper-V to allow higher network throughput and reduce processing overhead related to network operations. What should you do?
A. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-VMNetworkAdapter -VmqWeight 0 on the VMs.
B. In Hyper-V Manager, disable the protected network option for all NICs on the VMs.
C. in Hyper-V Manager, enable the Single Root I/O Virtualization (SR-IOV) option on the VMs.
D. Disable Internet Protocol security (IPsec) task offloading on the VMs.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
What is SR-IOV
Requires support in network adapter
Provides Direct Memory Access to virtual machines
Increases network throughput
Reduces network latency
Reduces CPU overhead on the Hyper-V server
Virtual machine bypasses virtual switch
Supports Live Migration, even when different SR_IOV adapters are used

QUESTION 13
You administer an environment that uses a Windows Server 2012 R2 Hyper-V cluster and System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). You plan to deploy two virtual machines (VMs) that host a line-of-business (LOB) application. The VMs must reside on the same Hyper-V host server at all times. The LOB application does NOT require high availability.
You need to deploy the VMs.
What should you do?
A. Add a custom property to both VMs, and assign the same value to each property. Configure the Hyper-V host cluster to use the same custom property and value. Configure a custom placement rule that uses filters that are based on the custom property and value.
B. Configure the VMs to use the same VM network.
C. Configure the VMs to reside on the same storage area networks (SANs).
D. Add a custom property to both VMs, and assign the same value to each property. Configure the VMs as members of the same availability set.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You administer two Windows 2012 R2 servers that have the Hyper-V role installed. You plan to deploy a new Hyper-V cluster. The cluster instance must NOT be added to Active Directory.
You need to deploy the cluster. What should you do?
A. Use Hyper-V Manager to deploy the cluster.
B. Use Failover Cluster Manager to deploy the cluster.
C. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet New-Cluster. Specify ActiveDirectoryAndDNS for the AdministrativeAccessPoint parameter.
D. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet New-Cluster. Specify DNS for the AdministrativeAccessPoint parameter.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
To deploy an Active Directory-detached cluster, you must use Windows PowerShell. You cannot use Failover Cluster Manager.
To create the failover cluster, start Windows PowerShell as an administrator, and then use the New-Cluster cmdlet with the AdministrativeAccessPoint parameter set to a value of DNS.

QUESTION 15
You are the virtualization administrator for an organization that manages private and public cloud-based resources. The organization uses Windows Server 2008 R2 SP1 Hyper-V. All Hyper-V host servers are configured as nodes in a four-node cluster. The organization also uses System Center 2012 R2.
Operating system updates to each host server require a system reboot. You need to ensure that the virtual machines remain online during any reboots required by the updates.
What should you do?
A. Apply updates by using the Virtual Machine Servicing Tool (VMST).
B. Configure orchestrated updates of Hyper-V host clusters in System Center 2012 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
C. Implement cluster-aware updating with the Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU) wizard.
D. In System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager, add all of the servers to a collection. Deploy updates to the collection.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
CAU is an automated feature that enables you to update clustered servers with little or no loss of availability during the update process. During an Updating Run, CAU transparently performs the following tasks:
· Puts each node of the cluster into node maintenance mode
· Moves the clustered roles off the node
· Installs the updates and any dependent updates
· Performs a restart if necessary
· Brings the node out of maintenance mode
· Restores the clustered roles on the node
· Moves to update the next node
For many clustered roles (formerly called clustered applications and services) in the cluster, the automatic update process triggers a planned failover, and it can cause a transient service interruption for connected clients. However, in the case of continuously available workloads such as Hyper-V with live migration or file server with SMB Transparent Failover, CAU can coordinate cluster updates with no impact to the service availability.
Note
The CAU feature is only compatible with Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2012 failover clusters and the clustered roles that are supported on those versions.

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Best Microsoft MCSE 70-980 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Your Active Directory currently contains five virtualized domain controllers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. The system state of each domain controller is backed up daily. The backups are shipped to a remote location weekly. Your company recently implemented a disaster recovery site that contains several servers. The servers run Windows Server 20l2 R2 and have the HyperV server role installed. The disaster recovery site has a highspeed WAN link to the main office.
You need to create an Active Directory recovery plan that meets the following requirements:
Restores the Active Directory if a catastrophe prevents all access to the main office.
Minimizes data loss.
What should you include in the plan?
A. HyperV replicas
B. Live migration
C. Virtual machine checkpoints
D. System state restores
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains several domain controllers. The domain controllers run either Windows Server 20l2 or Windows Server 200S R2. The domain functional level is Windows Server 200S R2. The forest functional level is Windows Server 200S. The corporate compliance policy states that all items deleted from Active Directory must be recoverable from a Recycle Bin.
You need to recommend changes to the current environment to meet the compliance policy.
Which changes should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 200S R2.
B. Run the EnableADOptionalFeature cmdlet.
C. Run the NewADObject cmdlet.
D. Run the SetServer cmdlet
E. Raise the domain functional level to Windows Server 20l2.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Your network contains 500 client computers that run Windows 7 and a custom application named Appl.
Appl uses data stored in a shared folder.
You have a failover cluster named Clusterl that contains two servers named Serverl and Server2. Serverl and Server2 run Windows Server 20l2 and are connected to an iSCSI Storage Area Network (SAN).
You plan to move the shared folder to Clusterl.
You need to recommend which cluster resource must be created to ensure that the shared folder can be accessed from Clusterl.
What should you recommend? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. The Generic Application cluster role
B. The DFS Namespace Server cluster role
C. The clustered File Server role of the File Server for general use type
D. The clustered File Server role of the File Server for scaleout application data type
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2.
You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application.
You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only.
You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines.
Solution: From the properties of each virtual machine, you enable MAC address spoofing for the existing virtual network adapter.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2.
You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. 70-980 dumps Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application.
You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only.
You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines.
Solution: On each HyperV server, you create a new external virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter and connect the new virtual network adapters to the new external virtual network switches.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2.
You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application.
You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only.
You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines.
Solution: On each HyperV server, you create a new private virtual network switch. From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter and connect the new virtual network adapters to the new private virtual network switches.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Your network contains five servers that run Windows Server 20l2 R2.
You install the HyperV server role on the servers. You create an external virtual network switch on each server. You plan to deploy five virtual machines to each HyperV server. Each virtual machine will have a virtual network adapter that is connected to the external virtual network switch and that has a VLAN identifier of l. Each virtual machine will run Windows Server 20l2 R2. All of the virtual machines will run the identical web application.
You plan to install the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on each virtual machine and join each virtual machine to an NLB cluster. The cluster will be configured to use unicast only.
You need to ensure that the NLB feature can distribute connections across all of the virtual machines.
Solution: From the properties of each virtual machine, you add a second virtual network adapter. You connect the new virtual network adapters to the external virtual network switch and configure the new virtual network adapters to use a VLAN identifier of 2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure.
You deploy a service named Service by using a service template. Service contains two virtual machines.
The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1.
Solution: From Configuration Manager, you create a Collection and a Desired Configuration Management baseline.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure.
You deploy a service named Servicel by using a service template. Servicel contains two virtual machines.
The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1.
Solution: From Virtual Machine Manager (VMM), you modify the properties of the service template.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure.
You deploy a service named Servicel by using a service template. Servicel contains two virtual machines.
The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1.
Solution: From Operations Manager, you create a Distributed Application and a Service Level Tracking object.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure.
You deploy a service named Servicel by using a service template. Servicel contains two virtual machines.
The virtual machines are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to recommend a monitoring solution to ensure that an administrator can review the availability information of Service1.
Solution: From Operations Manager, you create a Distributed Application and a Monitor Override.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure. 70-980 dumps
You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: You create a copy of the User certificate template, and then you modify the extensions of the copy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure.
You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: From the properties of the Basic EFS template, you assign the Allow Enroll permission to the Authenticated Users group.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure.
You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: You create a copy of the Basic EFS certificate template, and then you modify the validity period of the copy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network has an Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) infrastructure.
You need to issue a certificate to users to meet the following requirements:
Ensure that the users can encrypt files by using Encrypting File System (EFS). Ensure that all of the users reenroll for their certificate every six months. Solution: From the properties of the User certificate template, you assign the Allow Enroll permission to the Authenticated Users group.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains multiple servers that run Windows Server 20l2. The network contains 1,000 client computers that run Windows 7.
Two hundred remote users have laptop computers and only work from home.
The network does not provide remote access to users.
You need to recommend a monitoring solution to meet the following requirements:
Generate a list of updates that are applied successfully to all computers.
Minimize the amount of bandwidth used to download updates.
An administrator must approve the installation of an update on any client computer.
What should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Microsoft Asset Inventory Service (AIS)
B. Windows InTune
C. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
D. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
E. Microsoft System Center 20l2 Service Manager
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 17
Your network contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure.
You use Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) to manage 20 HyperV hosts.
You deploy a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server.
You need to automate the remediation of noncompliant HyperV hosts. The solution must minimize the amount of that virtual machines are unavailable.
What should you do first?
A. Configure the HyperV hosts to download Windows updates from the WSUS server by using a Group Policy object (GPO).
B. Install the WSUS Administrati n console on the VMM server, and then add the WSUS server to the fabric.
C. Install the Virtual Machine Manager console on the WSUS server, and then add the WSUS server to the fabric.
D. Configure the HyperV hosts to download Windows updates from the VMM server by using a Group Policy object (GPO).
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a System Center 20l2 R2 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) deployment. 70-980 dumps
The domain contains 20 HyperV hosts that run Windows Server 20l2 R2. Currently, the computer accounts of all of the HyperV hosts are in organizational unit (OU) named Virtualization. You plan to create two private clouds by using VMM named Cloudl and Cloud2. The virtual machines for Cloudl will be hosted on two HyperV hosts named Serverl and Server2. The virtual machines for Cloud2 will be hosted on two HyperV hosts named Server3 and Server4.
You need to recommend an administrative model for Cloudl and Cloud2.
Which technology best achieves the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Two sites and two Application Administrator (SelfService User) user roles
B. Two host groups and two Application Administrator (SelfService User) user roles
C. Two OUs and two Application Administrator (SelfService User) user roles
D. Two logical units and two Tenant Administrator user roles
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an internal network and a perimeter network. The internal network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers in the perimeter network are part of a workgroup. The internal network contains a Microsoft System Center 20l2 infrastructure. You plan to implement an update infrastructure to update the following:
Windows Server 20l2
System Center 20l2
Windows Server 2003
Microsoft SQL Server 20l2
Thirdparty virtualization hosts
Microsoft SharePoint Server 20l0
Another administrator recommends implementi g a single WSUS server to manage all of the updates. You need to identify which updates can be applied by using the recommended deployment of WSUS. What should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SQL Server 20l2
B. System Center 20l2
C. SharePoint Server 20l0
D. Windows Server 20l2
E. Thirdparty virtualization hosts
F. Windows Server 2003
Correct Answer: BCDE

QUESTION 20
Your company has three offices. The offices are located in Seattle, London, and Tokyo. The network contains an Active Directory domain named northwindtraders.com. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site.
System Center 20l2 R2 Operations Manager is deployed to the domain. The servers in all three sites are monitored by using Operations Manager.
The company has a web site for its customers. The web site requires users to signin.
You need to recommend a solution to monitor the web site.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
Monitor the availability of the web site from locations in North America, Europe, Asia, and Australia.
Monitor multistep requests to the web site.
Use a central console for monitoring.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Import the System Center Global Services Monitoring Management Pack and add the Web Application Availability Monitoring monitoring type.
B. Add the Web Application Transaction monitoring type and configure watcher nodes.
C. Add the TCP Port monitoring type and configure watcher nodes.
D. Import the System Center Global Services Monitor Management Pack and add the Visual Studio Web Test Monitoring monitoring type.
Correct Answer: D

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Latest Microsoft Windows Client 70-686 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-10)

QUESTION 1
Your company has two Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domains, Domain1 and Domain2. A two-way trust relationship exists between the domains.
Users in both domains can log on to client computers in only their own domains. System logs on the domain controllers display the error message Clock skew too great when users in Domain1 attempt to log on to client computers in Domain2.
You need to ensure that users can log on to client computers in both domains.
What should you do?
A. Decrease the Maximum tolerance for computer clock synchronization setting in the default Domain Group Policy object ( GPO ).
B. Configure the primary domain controller (PDC) emulatorin each domain to synchronize its clock with the same external time source.
C. Run a startup script that includes Net Time /setsntp on all client computers.
D. Run a startup script that includes Net Time /querysntp on all client computers.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest with a single domain named contoso.com. The design of the organizational units (OUs) and Group Policy objects (GPOs) is shown in the following diagram.
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Multiple computer configuration settings and user configuration settings are defined in the Kiosk Computers GPO.
A security audit indicates that user configuration settings that are defined in the Kiosk Computers GPO are not applied when users log on to client computers that are in the Kiosk Computers OU.
You need to ensure that the user configuration settings are correctly applied.
What should you do?
A. Enable loopback processing in Merge mode on the Default Domain Policy GPO.
B. Disable the user configuration settings on the Default Domain Policy GPO.
C. Enable loopback processing in Replace mode on the Kiosk Computers GPO.
D. Disable the user configuration settings on the New York Users GPO.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Refer to Planning and managing windows 7 desktop deployments and environment.

QUESTION 3
You have a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) site. All client computers run Windows 7. Users in the marketing department use a custom application.
You create a new Group Policy object (GPO) and link it to the site. Users in the marketing department then report that they are unable to use the custom application.
You need to ensure that all users in the marketing department are able to use the custom application. You need to ensure that all other users continue to receive the new GPO.
What should you do?
A. Add marketing users to a domain group. Use security filtering to grant the group the Allow-Read permission and the Allow-Apply Group Policy permission for the GPO.
B. Move marketing users to a dedicated organizational unit (OU). Apply the Block Inheritance setting to the OU.
C. Add marketing users to a domain group. Use security filtering to grant the group the Allow-Read permission and the Deny-Apply Group Policy permission for the GPO.
D. Move marketing users to a dedicated organizational unit (OU). Apply the Block Inheritance setting to the domain.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You use Group Policy to standardize Internet Explorer settings on Windows 7 client computers. Users occasionally change the Internet Explorer settings on individual client computers. 70-686 dumps
What should you do?
A. Use Group Policy to disable the Advanced tab of the Internet Explorer Properties dialog box.
B. Use the Group Policy Update utility to refresh Group Policy.
C. Enable Internet Explorer Maintenance Policy Processing in Group Policy.
D. Enable User Group Policy loopback processing mode.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
nternet Explorer Maintenance policy processing
This policy affects all policies that use the Internet Explorer Maintenance component of Group Policy, such as those in Windows Settings\Internet Explorer Maintenance. It overrides customized settings that the program implementing the Internet Explorer Maintenance policy set when it was installed.
If you enable this policy, you can use the check boxes provided to change the options.
Allow processing across a slow network connection updates the policies even when the update is being transmitted across a slow network connection, such as a telephone line.
Updates across slow connections can cause significant delays.
Do not apply during periodic background processing prevents the system from updating affected policies in the background while the computer is in use. Background updates can disrupt the user, cause a program to stop or operate abnormally, and, in rare cases, damage data.
Process even if the Group Policy objects have not changed updates and reapplies the policies even if the policies have not changed. Many policy implementations specify that they are updated only when changed.
However, you might want to update unchanged policies, such as reapplying a desired setting in case a user has changed it.

QUESTION 5
Your companys network includes client computers that run Windows 7.
You design a wireless network to use Extensible Authentication ProtocolCTransport Level Security (EAP-TLS). The Network Policy Server has a certificate installed.
Client computers are unable to connect to the wireless access points.
You need to enable client computers to connect to the wireless network.
What should you do?
A. Install a certificate in the Trusted Root Certification Authorities certificate store.
B. Configure client computers to use Protected Extensible Authentication ProtocolCTransport Layer Security (PEAP-TLS).
C. Configure client computers to use Protected Extensible Authentication ProtocolMicrosoft Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol version 2 (PEAP-MS-CHAP v2).
D. Install a certificate in the Third-Party Root Certification Authorities certificate store.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Your company infrastructure includes a Windows Server 2008 R2 file server and 1,000 Windows 7 Enterprise client computers.
The company wants to require a secure connection between client computers and the file server.
You need to create and deploy a Group Policy object (GPO) that includes a rule for Windows Firewall with Advanced Security.
What should you do?
A. Create an Isolation rule and specify Request authentication for inbound and outbound connections.
B. Create a Tunnel rule and specify Gateway-to-client as the tunnel type.
C. Create a Server-to-server rule and specify the endpoints as Any IP address and the file server IP address.
D. Create an Authentication exemption rule and add the file server IP address to the Exempt Computers list.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The PDC emulator master also serves as the machine to which all domain controllers in the domain will synchronise their clocks. It, in turn, should be configured to synchronise to an external NTP time source

QUESTION 7
You deploy Windows 7 to the computers that are used by your companys Web developers.
All Web developer user accounts are in a single organizational unit (OU).
Internet Explorer is blocking pop-up windows for multiple internal Web applications that are hosted on different servers.
You need to use Group Policy to ensure that Internet Explorer does not block pop-up windows for internal Web applications.
What should you do?
A. Enable Compatibility View in Internet Explorer.
B. Add each server to the Intranet zone.
C. Add each server to the Trusted Sites zone.
D. Set the default security setting in Internet Explorer to Medium.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Pop-up Blocker features
Pop-up Blocker is turned on by default. There are restrictions on the size and position of pop-up windows, regardless of the Pop-up Blocker setting. Pop-up windows cannot be opened larger than or outside the viewable desktop area. For more information, see “Windows Restrictions” in this document.
When this functionality is enabled, automatic and background pop-up windows are blocked, but windows that are opened by a user click will still open in the usual manner. Note that sites in the
Trusted Sites and Local
Intranet zones do not have their pop-up windows blocked by default, as they are considered safe. This setting can be configured in the Security tab in Internet Options.
Hints: internal web , so i choose intranet zones.
Local Intranet Zone
By default, the Local Intranet zone contains all network connections that were established by using a Universal
Naming Convention (UNC) path, and Web sites that bypass the proxy server or have names that do not include periods (for example, http://local), as long as they are not assigned to either the Restricted Sites or Trusted Sites zone. The default security level for the Local Intranet zone is set to Medium (Internet Explorer 4) or Medium-low (Internet Explorer 5 and 6). Be aware that when you access a local area network (LAN) or an intranet share, or an intranet Web site by using an Internet Protocol (IP) address or by using a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), the share or Web site is identified as being in the Internet zone instead of in the Local intranet zone.
Trusted Sites Zone
This zone contains Web sites that you trust as safe (such as Web sites that are on your organization’s intranet or that come from established companies in whom you have confidence). When you add a Web site to the Trusted Sites zone, you believe that files you download or that you run from the Web site will not damage your computer or data. By default, there are no Web sites that are assigned to the Trusted Sites zone, and the security level is set to Low.

QUESTION 8
Your network has client computers that run Windows 7 Enterprise. You plan to deploy new administrative template policy settings by using custom ADMX files. 70-686 dumps You create the custom ADMX files, and you save them on a network share. You start Group Policy Object Editor (GPO Editor). The custom ADMX files are not available in the Group Policy editing session.
You need to ensure that the ADMX files are available to the GPO Editor. What should you do?
A. Copy the ADMX files to the % systemroot% \ inf folder on each Windows 7 computer, and then restart the GPO Editor.
B. Set the network share permissions to grant all Windows 7 users Read access for the share.
C. Copy the ADMX files to the %systemroot% \ system32 folder on each Windows 7 computer, and then restart the GPO Editor.
D. Copy the ADMX files to the central store, and then restart the GPO Editor.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
To take advantage of the benefits of .admx files, you must create a Central Store in the SYSVOL folder on a domain controller. The Central Store is a file location that is checked by the Group Policy tools. The Group Policy tools use any .admx files that are in the Central Store. The files that are in the Central Store are later replicated to all domain controllers in the domain.

QUESTION 9
You are planning to deploy Windows 7 Enterprise to all of your company’s client computers.
You have the following requirements:
• Create two custom partitions on each client computer’s hard disk, one for the operating system and the other for data.
• Automatically create the partitions during Windows Setup.
You need to design an image that meets the requirements.
Which two actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order)
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 10
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest with a single domain.
Domain controllers are located in the companys offices in New York and Boston.
You deploy a group policy at the domain level that includes security filtering.
You discover that Group Policy object (GPO) settings are being applied to computers in the New York office, but not to computers in the Boston office.
You suspect there might be replication problems with the policies. What should you do?
A. Run a Group Policy Results report against computers in the Boston office.
B. Run a Group Policy Modeling report against computers in the Boston office.
C. Use the GpoTool.exe command-line tool.
D. Use the RepAdmin.exe command-line tool.
Correct Answer: A

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