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Latest CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following technologies can store multi-tenant data with different security requirements?
A. Data loss prevention
B. Trusted platform module
C. Hard drive encryption
D. Cloud computing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following wireless security technologies continuously supplies new keys for WEP?
A. TKIP
B. Mac filtering
C. WPA2
D. WPA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?
A. Review past security incidents and their resolution
B. Rewrite the existing security policy
C. Implement an intrusion prevention system
D. Install honey pot systems
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Review the following diagram depicting communication between PC1 and PC2 on each side of a router.
Analyze the network traffic logs which show communication between the two computers as captured by the computer with IP 10.2.2.10.
DIAGRAM
PC1 PC2
[192.168.1.30]——–[INSIDE 192.168.1.1 router OUTSIDE 10.2.2.1]———[10.2.2.10] LOGS
10:30:22, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, SYN
10:30:23, SRC 10.2.2.10:80, DST 10.2.2.1:3030, SYN/ACK
10:30:24, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, ACK Given the above information, which of the following can be inferred about the above environment?
A. 192.168.1.30 is a web server.
B. The web server listens on a non-standard port.
C. The router filters port 80 traffic.
D. The router implements NAT.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Pete, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into the network. Which of the following is designed to stop an intrusion on the network?
A. NIPS
B. HIDS
C. HIPS
D. NIDS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
After an assessment, auditors recommended that an application hosting company should contract with additional data providers for redundant high speed Internet connections. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this recommendation? (Select TWO).
A. To allow load balancing for cloud support
B. To allow for business continuity if one provider goes out of business
C. To eliminate a single point of failure
D. To allow for a hot site in case of disaster
E. To improve intranet communication speeds
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
The Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has tasked The Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) to develop and update all Internal Operating Procedures and Standard Operating Procedures documentation in order to successfully respond to future incidents. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following stages of the Incident Handling process is the team working on?
A. Lessons Learned
B. Eradication
C. Recovery
D. Preparation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Used in conjunction, which of the following are PII? (Select TWO).
A. Marital status
B. Favorite movie
C. Pet’s name
D. Birthday
E. Full name
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
A victim is logged onto a popular home router forum site in order to troubleshoot some router configuration issues. The router is a fairly standard configuration and has an IP address of 192.168.1.1. The victim is logged into their router administrative interface in one tab and clicks a forum link in another tab. Due to clicking the forum link, the home router reboots. Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred?
A. Brute force password attack
B. Cross-site request forgery
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Fuzzing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A recent spike in virus detections has been attributed to end-users visiting www.compnay.com. The business has an established relationship with an organization using the URL of www.company.com but not with the site that has been causing the infections. Which of the following would BEST describe this type of attack?
A. Typo squatting
B. Session hijacking
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Spear phishing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following attacks impact the availability of a system? (Select TWO).
A. Smurf
B. Phishing
C. Spim
D. DDoS
E. Spoofing
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
A database administrator receives a call on an outside telephone line from a person who states that they work for a well-known database vendor. The caller states there have been problems applying the newly released vulnerability patch for their database system, and asks what version is being used so that they can assist. Which of the following is the BEST action for the administrator to take?
A. Thank the caller, report the contact to the manager, and contact the vendor support line to verify any reported patch issues.
B. Obtain the vendor’s email and phone number and call them back after identifying the number of systems affected by the patch.
C. Give the caller the database version and patch level so that they can receive help applying the patch.
D. Call the police to report the contact about the database systems, and then check system logs for attack attempts.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An IT security technician is actively involved in identifying coding issues for her company.
Which of the following is an application security technique that can be used to identify unknown weaknesses within the code?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Denial of service
C. Fuzzing
D. Port scanning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
The systems administrator wishes to implement a hardware-based encryption method that could also be used to sign code. They can achieve this by:
A. Utilizing the already present TPM.
B. Configuring secure application sandboxes.
C. Enforcing whole disk encryption.
D. Moving data and applications into the cloud.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
It has been discovered that students are using kiosk tablets intended for registration and scheduling to play games and utilize instant messaging. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following could BEST eliminate this issue?
A. Device encryption
B. Application control
C. Content filtering
D. Screen-locks
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following will allow Pete, a security analyst, to trigger a security alert because of a tracking cookie?
A. Network based firewall
B. Anti-spam software
C. Host based firewall
D. Anti-spyware software
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A system administrator needs to ensure that certain departments have more restrictive controls to their shared folders than other departments. Which of the following security controls would be implemented to restrict those departments?
A. User assigned privileges
B. Password disablement
C. Multiple account creation
D. Group based privileges
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which of the following is the BEST reason for placing a password lock on a mobile device?
A. Prevents an unauthorized user from accessing owner’s data
B. Enables remote wipe capabilities
C. Stops an unauthorized user from using the device again
D. Prevents an unauthorized user from making phone calls
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is an XML based open standard used in the exchange of authentication and authorization information between different parties?
A. LDAP
B. SAML
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Several employee accounts appear to have been cracked by an attacker. Which of the following should the security administrator implement to mitigate password cracking attacks? (Select TWO).
A. Increase password complexity
B. Deploy an IDS to capture suspicious logins
C. Implement password history
D. Implement monitoring of logins
E. Implement password expiration
F. Increase password length
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 22
To ensure compatibility with their flagship product, the security engineer is tasked to recommend an encryption cipher that will be compatible with the majority of third party software and hardware vendors.
Which of the following should be recommended?
A. SHA
B. MD5
C. Blowfish
D. AES
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
While setting up a secure wireless corporate network, which of the following should Pete, an administrator, avoid implementing?
A. EAP-TLS
B. PEAP
C. WEP
D. WPA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which of the following protocols uses an asymmetric key to open a session and then establishes a symmetric key for the remainder of the session?
A. SFTP
B. HTTPS
C. TFTP
D. TLS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
The IT department has installed new wireless access points but discovers that the signal extends far into the parking lot. Which of the following actions should be taken to correct this?
A. Disable the SSID broadcasting
B. Configure the access points so that MAC filtering is not used
C. Implement WEP encryption on the access points
D. Lower the power for office coverage onl
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
A risk assessment team is concerned about hosting data with a cloud service provider (CSP) which of the following findings would justify this concern?
A. The CPS utilizes encryption for data at rest and in motion
B. The CSP takes into account multinational privacy concerns
C. The financial review indicates the company is a startup
D. SLA state service tickets will be resolved in less than 15 minutes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
A computer on a company network was infected with a zero-day exploit after an employee accidently opened an email that contained malicious content. SY0-401 dumps The employee recognized the email as malicious and was attempting to delete it, but accidently opened it. Which of the following should be done to prevent this scenario from occurring again in the future?
A. Install host-based firewalls on all computers that have an email client installed
B. Set the email program default to open messages in plain text
C. Install end-point protection on all computers that access web email
D. Create new email spam filters to delete all messages from that sender
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
A small IT security form has an internal network composed of laptops, servers, and printers. The network has both wired and wireless segments and supports VPN access from remote sites. To protect the network from internal and external threats, including social engineering attacks, the company decides to implement stringent security controls. Which of the following lists is the BEST combination of security controls to implement?
A. Disable SSID broadcast, require full disk encryption on servers, laptop, and personally owned electronic devices, enable MAC filtering on WAPs, require photographic ID to enter the building.
B. Enable port security; divide the network into segments for servers, laptops, public and remote users; apply ACLs to all network equipment; enable MAC filtering on WAPs; and require two-factor authentication for network access.
C. Divide the network into segments for servers, laptops, public and remote users; require the use of one time pads for network key exchange and access; enable MAC filtering ACLs on all servers.
D. Enable SSID broadcast on a honeynet; install monitoring software on all corporate equipment’ install CCTVs to deter social engineering; enable SE Linux in permissive mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
A security guard has informed the Chief information Security Officer that a person with a tablet has been walking around the building. The guard also noticed strange white markings in different areas of the parking lot. The person is attempting which of the following types of attacks?
A. Jamming
B. War chalking
C. Packet sniffing
D. Near field communication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A security Operations Center was scanning a subnet for infections and found a contaminated machine.
One of the administrators disabled the switch port that the machine was connected to, and informed a local technician of the infection. Which of the following steps did the administrator perform?
A. Escalation
B. Identification
C. Notification
D. Quarantine
E. Preparation
Correct Answer: CD

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New CompTIA Project+ PK0-003 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-40)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is an acknowledgement that risks may occur, but a response is in place to minimize the risk impact?
A. Acceptance
B. Mitigation
C. Avoidance
D. Enhancing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
The stakeholder has notified the project manager that new priorities have caused them to shift all of the business subject matter expert resources to a new project for one year. The BEST course of action for the project manager is:
A. Phase gate review.
B. Project cancellation.
C. Project completion.
D. Stage completion.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following would be included in the project transition plan?
A. Specifications used for quality control measurements.
B. Comparison of project deliverables with organizational strategic goals.
C. Maintenance responsibilities of the project deliverables.
D. Analysis of the project expenditures.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
The design activity of a project has the following cost attributes:
PV = 100,000 EV = 20,000 AC = 90,000
Based on this scenario, calculate the schedule variance.
A. -80,000
B. -70,000
C. 10,000
D. 120,000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A project has two resources scheduled to work 40 hours a week for four weeks, both at $85.00 an hour. One resource called in sick for 16 hours, while the other resource worked four hours additional. PK0-003 dumps Which of the following is the cost of the resources?
A. $25,840
B. $26,180
C. $27,200
D. $27,540
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
In the planning phase of a project, which of the following activities is performed?
A. Solicitation
B. Perform a feasibility study
C. Appoint a project team
D. Project Charter
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Schedule dependencies include: (Select TWO).
A. Successor activities
B. Risks
C. Constraints
D. Predecessor activities
E. Issues
F. Assumptions
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Which of the following conflict resolution techniques results in a lose-lose scenario?
A. Forcing
B. Confronting
C. Compromise
D. Negotiating
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In which of the following project organizations would the project management be handled by a marketing manager?
A. Matrix
B. Balanced
C. Projectized
D. Functional
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
When performing quantitative risk analysis, which of the following should be produced?
A. Control chart
B. Decision tree
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the project manager implementing when they allocate additional resources to a set of tasks that are in the critical path and are slowing down the project completion?
A. Crashing
B. Optimizing
C. Controlling
D. Fast tracking
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A project team member has identified a required change to one of their assigned tasks. The change would alter the order in which other tasks must be completed. Which of the following should be done NEXT?
A. Implement the change
B. Update the change registry
C. Document the change
D. Perform an impact analysis
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Resources for a project report to a project manager and a functional manager. The organizational structure is:
A. Matrix
B. Ad hoc
C. Functional
D. Projectized
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
In order to ensure higher commitment levels, estimates should be created, or approved by:
A. The person doing the work
B. The customer
C. The project manager
D. Key stakeholders
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following actions can be used to ensure the quality of project deliverables?
A. Analyzing performance information
B. Ensuring all vendors are ISO certified
C. Updating the risk register
D. A concise statement of work
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which of the following circumstances could lead to initiating administrative closure?
A. Project cancellation
B. Resource constraints
C. Contract closure
D. Changes in the critical path
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A project manager of a particular project receives formal notification that a vendor has gone out of business. New vendors with similar products at similar costs have been identified. PK0-003 dumps Which of the following should the project manager do FIRST?
A. Initiate RFQs to qualified vendors, update the project management plan and communicate the issue with the project sponsor following the project communications plan.
B. Undertake a make-or-buy decision analysis; communicate the issue with the project sponsor following the project communications plan.
C. Call a stakeholder meeting following the project communications plan to urgently review the project schedule; update the project management plan.
D. Communicate the issue with the project sponsor following the project communications plan, call a project team meeting to discuss alternatives and update the project management plan.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Due to unforeseen schedule blowouts, the project manager is forced to compress the next set of activities in order to avoid affecting the project delivery date. Which of the following techniques can be used to help achieve this? (Select TWO).
A. Fast tracking
B. Crashing
C. Delaying
D. Quality control
E. Scope reduction
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
Which of the following activities would be considered a project?
A. Providing on-going support of an organization\’s software product
B. Updating an organization\’s antivirus software
C. Directing a team of developers to create a software program
D. Any activity with the express purpose of generating revenue
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which of the following activity sequencing techniques uses nodes to symbolize activities and arrows to show how their dependencies are connected?
A. Critical Path Method
B. Arrow Diagramming Method
C. Critical Chain Method
D. Precedence Diagramming Method
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which of the following conflict resolution techniques involves a solution that partially satisfies all interested parties?
A. Confronting
B. Compromise
C. Avoiding
D. Forcing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is included in decision oversight?
A. Local, state, and federal laws
B. Change control board, committee consulting
C. Tollgate approval, project phase transition
D. Audit trails, retention, and version control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A project is having issues because uncertain events have occurred that were not tracked and planned for. This could have been avoided by using:
A. A risk register.
B. Change management.
C. An issues log.
D. A communication plan.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
An unexpected risk has been identified in a project. Which of the following actions should the project manager perform FIRST?
A. Add the risk to the risk register
B. Update the project probability / impact matrix
C. Submit a change request
D. Perform a risk qualitative analysis
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
A project is having issues because the team is unclear what they should be doing and who should be doing it. This could have been avoided by using:
A. A risk register.
B. Change management.
C. A communication plan.
D. An issues log.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A project team is reviewing the deliverables and identifies a deliverable no one on the team has experience with. The lack of expertise is identified as a risk. PK0-003 dumps The project manager decides, as a workaround, to contract with a third party.
This type of risk response is called:
A. Transference.
B. Avoidance.
C. Monitor and Prepare.
D. Acceptance.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A project is having issues because the time required to do the smaller work items in the project were underestimated.
This could have been avoided by using:
A. A WBS
B. Quality metrics
C. A scope statement
D. A budget
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A key stakeholder has requested a change to the delivery frequency of the risk register. Which of the following documents should be updated?
A. Communications Plan
B. Risk Register
C. Work Breakdown Structure
D. Change Log
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
The project manager is trying to determine what to present at a project kick-off meeting. Should a high- level project schedule be included?
A. It depends. Some stakeholders are not technical enough to understand them.
B. No. The project is likely to still be in the initiation phase which is too early for a project schedule.
C. Yes. Project schedules are required to ensure that stakeholders are bound to the scope.
D. Yes. High level project schedules are typically presented at a kick-off meeting.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
— Exhibit —
PK0-003 dumps
Click on the Exhibit button. Which of the following is the float of the path: start-A-D-end?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Five
D. Nineteen
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
Which of the following would be used to facilitate communication to investors, customers, and the stakeholders throughout the project?
A. Scope boundaries
B. Status report
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Resource plan
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
While working on a project, a workaround is implemented to deal with an unforeseen event. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?
A. Continue with the project as planned
B. Update the risk register
C. Update the project management plan with information about the workaround
D. Assess the action taken to determine additional impacts to the project
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
A project manager is trying to ensure the quality of the design and reduce the number of potential defects. The project manager would like to use the fishbone diagram to perform this analysis. This type of modeling relies on:
A. Prioritizing the specific event.
B. Variance in the process over time.
C. Causes of a specific event.
D. Determining the number of events.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which of the following are lose-lose conflict resolution techniques?
A. Negotiating
B. Compromise
C. Confronting
D. Avoiding
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
The IT department is currently resource constrained managing daily operational tasks. However, there are a number of subject matter experts (SME) within the department who are critical to making the project succeed. PK0-003 dumps Which of the following should the project manager use to ensure the success of the project?
A. Engage a services company to deliver the project
B. Negotiate staff augmentation with the SME\’s managers
C. Recruit staff form the organizations strategy area
D. Perform a request for proposal
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which of the following can aid in the identification of trends?
A. Pareto charts
B. Ishikawa diagrams
C. Histograms
D. Run charts
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Which of the following does the Critical Path tell the Project Manager? (Select TWO).
A. Where potential delays in the project might occur
B. The earliest completion for project work
C. Activities that can be done in parallel
D. The allocation time for each person assigned to the project
E. The longest series of activities
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 38
Which of the following MUST be submitted as part of a project change request?
A. Request for information
B. Project charter
C. Updated detailed design
D. Financial impact analysis
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 39
Which of the following would be included in the Project Charter?
A. Communication activities
B. Problem statement
C. Cost baseline D. Activity plan
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
The key stakeholder requires the project manager to advance the completion date before funding runs out. The project manager has had problems with this stakeholder in the past and wants to document this request. Which of the following should the project manager do? (Select TWO).
A. Complete a project change request form.
B. Analyze the project impact.
C. Update the project scope statement.
D. Revise the scope management plan.
E. Monitor the work performance.
Correct Answer: AB

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Latest CompTIA Network+ N10-005 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
A user’s laptop is unable to keep a stable network connection. Which of the following measures would MOST likely need to be configured?
A. SSID name
B. WAP encryption strength
C. WAP radio power
D. Channel overlay
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
WAP radio power is the signal strength through which you can specify the range from which you can stay connected to the network and access internet. Here, when the user is not able to maintain a stable connection then it is a problem with the signal strength for sure so you can try to increase the signal strength by increasing the radio power.

QUESTION 2
The Network Interface Layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds to which of the following layers of the OSI model? (Select TWO).
A. Network
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Physical
E. Data link
Correct Answer: DE

Explanation:
The network layer is responsible for packet forwarding including routing through intermediate routers, whereas the data link layer is responsible for media access control, flow control and error checking.

QUESTION 3
In which of the following layers of the OSI model would MAC addressing be found?
A. Network
B. Application
C. Data Link
D. Transport
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The ITU-T G.hn standard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of a selective repeat Sliding Window Protocol.

QUESTION 4
Several users from the finance department report that they are able to access the Internet, but unable to connect to their financial applications. The network technician is unable to ping the finance server. The technician decides to check the switch and determines that Internet access is working. Which of the following is a possible cause of the access issues?
A. Faulty cable
B. Remote management disabled
C. Improper VLAN assignment
D. Mismatched duplex
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Finance Server is placed in same VLAN which is assigned to finance users if they are able to access internet that’s means connectivity to switch is good, so we have to check the VLAN assigned to users.

QUESTION 5
A technician needs to ensure that traffic from a specific department is separated within several switches. N10-005 dumps Which of the following needs to be configured on the switch to separate the traffic?
A. Duplex settings
B. SNMP string
C. VLAN assignments
D. Spanning tree
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of end stations with a common set of requirements, independent of physical location. VLANs have the same attributes as a physical LAN but allow you to group end stations even if they are not located physically on the same LAN segment.

QUESTION 6
Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, how many usable IP addresses would be in that subnet?
A. 250
B. 254
C. 255
D. 256
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Subnet Mask however, determines the “class” of a Network. 255.255.255.0 is a “Class C” network.A class c network can host up to 254 pc’s

QUESTION 7
On which of the following OSI model layers would a MAC address be used?
A. Network
B. Data Link
C. Transport
D. Physical
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The ITU-T G.hn standard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of a selective repeat Sliding Window Protocol.

QUESTION 8
Joe, a user, has a computer that has a link light on his network interface card (NIC); however, Joe is unable to access the Internet. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?
A. Faulty GBIC
B. Faulty SFP
C. Cable is a crossover
D. VLAN mismatch
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
As user has link light on NIC that means he has connectivity with switch so he need to check his vlan assignment.

QUESTION 9
A network technician is troubleshooting signal problems with certain WAPs in an office and finds consistently high ping times across the units. Such an issue is called which of the following?
A. Latency
B. Attenuation
C. Crosstalk
D. Frequency hopping
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
During the high ping time users are using most of the bandwidth that causes latency so signal strength get affected by this.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following TCP/IP model layers does the OSI model Presentation layer map to?
A. Transport
B. Internet
C. Application
D. Network Interface
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The Application layer provides applications the ability to access the services of the other layers and defines the protocols that applications use to exchange data. There are many Application layer protocols and new protocols are always being developed.

QUESTION 11
A customer wants to keep cost to a minimum and has only ordered a single static IP address from the ISP. Which of the following must be configured on the router to allow for all the computers to share the same public IP address?
A. VLANs
B. PoE
C. PAT
D. VPN
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped toa single public IP address. N10-005 dumps The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses.

QUESTION 12
Which of the following LAN technologies is used to provide a MAXIMUM bandwidth of 1Gbps through singlemode fiber?
A. 10GBaseLR
B. 100BaseFX
C. 100BaseTX
D. 1000BaseX
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
1000BaseX identifies various Gigabit Ethernet physical layer standards as defined in IEEE802.3z, such as 1000BaseLX, 1000BaseSX, 1000BaseCX and 1000BaseLH. Basically, all standards included in 1000BaseX uses 8B/10B coding scheme with 8 bits of data and 2 bits of error-correction data. Each specification allows various cable (fiber or copper) lengths, and uses different cable media.

QUESTION 13
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?
A. Reservations
B. Lease times
C. Removing IPs from the active leases
D. Configuring the DNS options
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Reservations are permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not need to be statically configured.

QUESTION 14
Spanning-Tree Protocol is used with which of the following network devices?
A. Router
B. NIC
C. Switch
D. DHCP server
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The specification for STP is IEEE 802.1D. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network. Loops are deadly to a network.

QUESTION 15
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?
A. VLAN
B. Trunking
C. Spanning tree
D. Traffic filtering
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of end stations in a switched network that is logically segmented by function, project team, or application, without regard to the physical locations of the users. VLANs have the same attributes as physical LANs, but you can group end stations even if they are not physically located on the same LAN segment.

QUESTION 16
A user wants to connect seven PCs together for a game night. Which of the following should the user install to help with this task?
A. Media convertor
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Bridge
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
They connect multiple PCs, printers, servers and other hardware. Switches allow you to send information, such as email, and access shared resources, including printers, in a smooth, efficient, and transparent manner.

QUESTION 17
Which of the following defines the amount of time a host retains a specific IP address before it is renewed or released?
A. DHCP lease
B. DNS suffix
C. Subnet mask
D. DHCP reservation
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one-day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid.

QUESTION 18
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. N10-005 dumps Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?
A. Ping
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Tracert
D. Dig
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.

QUESTION 19
Ann, a new user, has a workstation that has connectivity to the printer located in her department, but cannot access the Internet. The result of an ipconfig command on Ann’s workstation is as follows:
IP address: 192.168.0.124
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.128
Default Gateway: 192.168.0.254
Which is MOST likely preventing the user from accessing the Internet?
A. Duplicate IP address
B. Incorrect gateway
C. Incorrect VLAN
D. Bad switch port
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
We usually give default gateway as an end device which is directly connected with ISP so in this case user has lost his connectivity with due to wrong default gateway configured.

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is the common port used for IMAP?
A. 25
B. 53
C. 143
D. 443
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The Internet Message Access Protocol (commonly known as IMAP) is an Application Layer Internet protocol that allows an e-mail client to access e-mail on a remote mail server. The current version, IMAP version 4 revision 1 (IMAP4rev1), is defined by RFC 3501. An IMAP server typically listens on well-known port 143.

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