Best Cisco CCNA Collaboration Certification 210-060 Exam Dumps Learning Resources

CCNA Collaboration certification is for network video engineers, IP telephony and IP network engineers who want to develop and advance their collaboration and video skills in line with the convergence of voice, video, data and mobile applications. Update the best Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps exam practice materials and study guides free try from lead4pass. The Cisco Certified Networking Association (CCNA) is a category of Cisco’s affiliated network professional certification process for early professional networking professionals.

For network video engineers, collaboration engineers, IP telephony and IP network engineers who want to develop and enhance collaboration and video skills based on the convergence of voice, video, data and mobile applications, Cisco CCNA Collaborative Certification is a key role for 210-060 CICD – Cisco training and Certification program. It will enable you to maximize your investment in education and increase your professional value by providing you with the skills to help your IT organization meet the business needs of these technology transformations.
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CCNA Collaboration certification ranks second after CCENT (Cisco Certified Portal Technician) certification, making it the second-level certification for five-line certification. After the Cisco CCNA certificate, network professionals can perform CCNP certification (Cisco Certified Network Professional), which is a third level certification.

Cisco CCNA Collaboration certification verifies the ability of technicians to set up, install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-sized switching and routing computer network failures. It also demonstrates the ability of a person to implement connectivity as a technician and to examine a wider range of regional networks.
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Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. Gateway utilization
B. Gateway summary
C. Gateway detail
D. Gateway and line group utilization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. video-enabled messaging through converged networks
B. text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone
C. voice-enabled message navigation
D. voice-enabled dialing to external users
E. automated attendant capabilities
F. automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 3
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 5
Which option is added number phone configuration is Cisco Unified Communicator Manager to add conference bridge resource to the phone
A. Media Resource Group
B. Conference Resource list
C. Conference Bridge
D. Media Resource Group List
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
End user is on a cisco telepresence session with remote participant and can control the camera at the remote endpoint. Which feature is underlying?
A. FECC
B. DTMF
C. FEC
D. PIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user’s 7945 IP phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone?
A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone.
B. Select Settings > Applications.
C. Select Settings > Network > Applications.
D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two explanations of DTMF dialing are true? (Choose two.)
A. DTMF dialing consists of simultaneous voice-band tones generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
B. The use of DTMF enables support for advanced telephony services.
C. DTMF dialing uses INVITE messages to signal when the first digit is pressed in a new call.
D. DTMF dialing consists of a simultaneous digital-band pulse generated when a button is pressed on a telephone.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
A Cisco administrator is asked to set up two new end users in Cisco Unified Communication Manager. Which two fields are required? (Choose two.)
A. First Name
B. User ID
C. PIN
D. Telephone Number
E. Password
F. Last Name
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
A user reports that during calls they hear excessive hissing when neither party is talking.
Which option is one cause of this noise?
A. QoS
B. LoPS
C. VAD
D. EPL
E. SRST
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
In an effort to proactively manage IP telephony infrastructure, a network engineer wants to review usage reports that provide top five users, top five calls, and traffic summary. Which option describes where this information can be retrieved using Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Navigate to Cisco Unified CM Administration > CDR Analysis and Reporting >System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
B. Navigate to Cisco Unified Operating System Administration > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
C. Navigate to Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Analysis and Reporting > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
D. Navigate to Cisco Unified Reporting > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
After getting reports that users cannot make calls out to the PSTN, a network administrator opens the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web page and begins to review route patterns. Why would the administrator look here when troubleshooting PSTN connectivity troubles?
A. A route pattern contains a list of gateways that can reach the PSTN.
B. A route pattern contains dial plan information for calling the PSTN.
C. A route pattern contains the necessary privileges for calling the PSTN.
D. A route pattern contains a list of SIP trunks that can reach the PSTN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An engineer is adding a third-party video endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which third-party device type should be used when adding the system?
A. SCCP
B. SIP
C. MGCP
D. H.323
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
How can an administrator determine which codec is being used between two endpoints while a call is in progress?
A. Run the codec trace in Cisco Unified Communication Manager.
B. Use Cisco Unified Serviceability network trace.
C. Can only be seen in Cisco SDI traces.
D. Can only be seen in a sniffer trace.
E. Press the ? button twice on one of the IP phones.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .csv
D. .pdf
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
An end user reports that conference calls are failing. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. voice gateways
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two tools can be used to measure the quality of a VoIP call? (Choose two.)
A. QoS configuration tool
B. mean opinion score tool
C. bulk administration tool
D. jitter compensation tool
E. rFactor tool
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 20
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Bulk administration tool
B. LDAP
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL
D. Outlook
E. Presence
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions
Correct Answer: ABC
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Why do you need Cisco CCNA Collaboration certification?

Like many others in the networking industry, you have to ask yourself why you want to get this Cisco CCNA Collaboration certificate. You should be aware that there are many benefits to being a CCNA Collaboration Certified Professional, which will definitely improve your professionalism. Here are some of the main reasons why you should be certified by CCNA Collaboration.

Great knowledge

To be certified by Cisco CCNA, you must take and pass the required exams. Before you take this exam, you must study everything included in the CCNA syllabus. This means that you will have a clear understanding of the various concepts covered in this certification, which will greatly enhance your knowledge.

Increase of employability

Obtaining a CCNA certificate in your resume will make you even bigger in the eyes of the employer. If employers think you have Cisco knowledge, they think that your chances of being an IT position will be very high. After all, when you bring your CCNA certificate to the technology industry, you will be able to master the knowledge gained.

Career Development

Obtaining Cisco CCNA credentials can enhance your career. With the knowledge of CCNA, you have a higher chance to climb the ladder. With this, you can’t stay in the same position in the hierarchy. In other words, you have the opportunity to get a promotion at the current company, or you can apply for a better position elsewhere.

Valuable assets to the company

As mentioned earlier, most employers prefer to recruit people who have already obtained Cisco CCNA certification. When you get this certificate, it clearly shows your employer that you have expanded your knowledge and skills, which is very beneficial to their company.

Personal satisfaction

After you get CCNA certification, you will have a very good feeling for yourself. When you see all the achievements you have made in a short time, and you can prove this to yourself and anyone who cares about your resume or who tries your knowledge, you will feel good about yourself.

Stepping stones to other certifications

Obtaining a CCNA certificate will give you three other Cisco qualifications and more. For example, you will be eligible for Cisco Certified Network Professional (CCNP) level, CCNA Wireless or CCNA Security Credentials.

This Cisco CCNA Collaboration Certification is beneficial to both employers and employees. It can also help those who have been working on the network for many years but still feel the need to further develop their network career. CCNA certification benefits all network professionals. Whether you have an online degree and have approximately 10 years of experience, you still need to be prepared and qualified to use Cisco CCNA test questions, especially if you want to further enhance your online career. Credentials can greatly increase your knowledge and make you stand out from the crowd.

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New Cisco CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q28)

QUESTION 1
Which network device creates and sends the initial packet of a session?
A. source
B. origination
C. destination
D. network
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
In the context of incident handling phases, which two activities fall under scoping? (Choose two.)
A. determining the number of attackers that are associated with a security incident
B. ascertaining the number and types of vulnerabilities on your network
C. identifying the extent that a security incident is impacting protected resources on the network
D. determining what and how much data may have been affected
E. identifying the attackers that are associated with a security incident
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 3
Which string matches the regular expression r(ege)+x?
A. rx
B. regeegex
C. r(ege)x
D. rege+x
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which source provides reports of vulnerabilities in software and hardware to a Security Operations Center?
A. Analysis Center
B. National CSIRT
C. Internal CSIRT
D. Physical Security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
From a security perspective, why is it important to employ a clock synchronization protocol on a network?
A. so that everyone knows the local time
B. to ensure employees adhere to work schedule
C. to construct an accurate timeline of events when responding to an incident
D. to guarantee that updates are pushed out according to schedule
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which element is part of an incident response plan?
A. organizational approach to incident response
B. organizational approach to security
C. disaster recovery
D. backups
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What mechanism does the Linux operating system provide to control access to files?
A. privileges required
B. user interaction
C. file permissions
D. access complexity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
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You notice that the email volume history has been abnormally high.
Which potential result is true?
A. Email sent from your domain might be filtered by the recipient.
B. Messages sent to your domain may be queued up until traffic dies down.
C. Several hosts in your network may be compromised.
D. Packets may be dropped due to network congestion.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
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Which type of log is this an example of?
A. IDS log
B. proxy log
C. NetFlow log
D. syslog
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
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Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this ping result?
A. The public IP address of cisco.com is 2001:420:1101:1::a.
B. The Cisco.com website is down.
C. The Cisco.com website is responding with an internal IP.
D. The public IP address of cisco.com is an IPv4 address.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which option has a drastic impact on network traffic because it can cause legitimate traffic to be blocked?
A. true positive
B. true negative
C. false positive
D. false negative
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You have run a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see what the file does. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection. Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed or required to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)
A. file size
B. domain names
C. dropped files
D. signatures
E. host IP addresses
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
Which goal of data normalization is true?
A. Reduce data redundancy.
B. Increase data redundancy.
C. Reduce data availability.
D. Increase data availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
210-255 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of log is this an example of?
A. syslog
B. NetFlow log
C. proxy log
D. IDS log
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which type of analysis allows you to see how likely an exploit could affect your network?
A. descriptive
B. casual
C. probabilistic
D. inferential
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which type of analysis assigns values to scenarios to see what the outcome might be in each scenario?
A. deterministic
B. exploratory
C. probabilistic
D. descriptive
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which description of a retrospective maKvare detection is true?
A. You use Wireshark to identify the malware source.
B. You use historical information from one or more sources to identify the affected host or file.
C. You use information from a network analyzer to identify the malware source.
D. You use Wireshark to identify the affected host or file.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two components are included in a 5-tuple? (Choose two.)
A. port number
B. destination IP address
C. data packet
D. user name
E. host logs
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when attacks consume network bandwidth, processor cycles, or disk space?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
You see confidential data being exfiltrated to an IP address that is attributed to a known Advanced Persistent Threat group. Assume that this is part of a real attach and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?
A. reconnaissance
B. weaponization
C. delivery
D. action on objectives
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which regular expression matches “color” and “colour”?
A. col[0-9]+our
B. colo?ur
C. colou?r
D. ]a-z]{7}
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
Which feature is used to find possible vulnerable services running on a server?
A. CPU utilization
B. security policy
C. temporary internet files
D. listening ports
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which element is included in an incident response plan?
A. organization mission
B. junior analyst approval
C. day-to-day firefighting
D. siloed approach to communications
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the correct descnption(s) of that evidence on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
210-255 dumps
QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the NetFlow v5 record from a security event on the right.
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Select and Place:
210-255 dumps
Correct Answer:
210-255 dumps
QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.
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Select and Place:
210-255 dumps
Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 28
Drag and drop the elements of incident handling from the left into the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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Latest Microsoft MCSE: Enterprise Devices and Apps 70-695 Dumps Exam Qs & As (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
You plan to deploy a Windows 8.1 Enterprise image that contains a volume license version of Microsoft Office 2013. The image will be captured from a reference computer. Office is activated by using the Key Management Service (KMS).
On the reference computer, you install Office 2013 and you verify that all of the Office applications start properly.
You need to ensure that when the image is deployed, users are not prompted for activation when they first start an Office application.
What is the best action to perform before you capture the image? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Rearm Office 2013 on the reference computer.
B. Run setup.exe and specify the /modify switch.
C. Modify the Config.xml file.
D. Reinstall Office 2013 on the reference computer.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your company deploys Microsoft Office Professional 2013 and installs all of the Office 2013 Professional applications to 100 computers.
You need to automate the removal of Access 2013 from some of the computers.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Modify the Config.xml file, and then run msiexec.exe.
B. Create an MSP file, and then run setup.exe.
C. Modify the Config.xml file, and then run setup.exe.
D. Create an MSP file, and then run msiexec.exe
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You use the Key Management Service (KMS) to activate Microsoft Office 2013.
You need to trigger the activation of Office 2013 on a client computer. Which tool should you use?
A. Ospp.vbs
B. Onlinesetup.cmd
C. Slui.exe
D. Wuauclt.exe
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You plan to sequence a 32-bit application named App1. App1 is compatible with Windows 7 and Windows 8.1. You have the following operating systems deployed to the network:
* 64-bit version of Windows 8.1 Enterprise
* 64-bit version of Windows 8.1 Pro
* 32-bit version of Windows 8.1 Pro
* 64-bit version of Windows 7 Enterprise
* 32-bit version of Windows 7 Pro
* 64-bit version of Windows 7 Pro
You need to identify the minimum number of Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) packages that must be created to ensure that App1 can run on all of the client computers on the network.
How many App-V packages should you identify?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains computers that have Microsoft Office 2007 and Office 2010 installed.
You plan to upgrade all of the versions of Office to Office 365 ProPlus.
You need to recommend a solution to identify which Office add-ins are in use.
What is the best recommendation to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. Install the Office Deployment Tool for Click-to-Run on all of the computers. Install the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) on one of the computers.
B. Install the Telemetry Processor on all of the computers. Install the Telemetry Agent on one of the computers.
C. Install the Telemetry Agent on all of the computers. Install the Telemetry Processor on one of the computers.
D. Install the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) on all of the computers. Install the Office Deployment Tool for Click-to -Run on one of the computers.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You have a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
You plan to deploy a Click-to-Run installation of Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus.
On a client computer named Computer1, you download the installation files by using the Office Deployment Tool for Click-to-Run. 70-695 dumps
You need to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to all of the client computers as a Microsoft Application Visualization (App-V) package by using Configuration Manager.
What is the best action to perform first? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From Configuration Manager, import a package.
B. Run appv_sequencer_setup.exe.
C. Run setup.exe.
D. From Configuration Manager, import an application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server named WDS1. WDS1 is used to deploy an image of Windows 8.1 Pro named Image1 to the computers in a classroom. The computers are redeployed every day. WDS1 only contains one install image.
Every morning on each computer, a technician must press F12, and then choose Image1.
You need to automate the process of deploying Image1 to the computers. Image1 must be deployed automatically to the computers when they are turned on.
Which two actions should you perform on WDS1? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Configure a Multicast Transmission.
B. Configure the Network settings.
C. Configure the Boot settings.
D. Configure the PXE Response settings.
E. Configure the Client settings.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager site that is used to deploy images, software, and Microsoft updates.
You have an image named Image1.
You need to apply multiple Microsoft updates to Image1.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From the Configuration Manager console, create a new automatic deployment rule.
B. From the properties of Image1 in Configuration Manager, modify the servicing options.
C. From the Configuration Manager console, run the Schedule Updates action for Image1.
D. Apply Image1 to a client computer, and then apply the Microsoft updates.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
In Sources.wim, you have a Windows 8.1 image named Image1.
You have an application named App1.exe. App1.exe is a self-contained application that does not require installation.
You mount Image1.
You need to add Appl.exe to Image1.
What should you run first?
A. Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage and the Path and FolderPath parameters
B. imagex.exe and the Append and Config parameters
C. dism.exe and the Image and AddPackage parameters
D. Copy-Item and the Path and Destination parameters
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Your company uses the computer builds shown in the following table.
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You plan to deploy Windows 8.1 Enterprise to the different computer builds by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
You need to recommend how many images must be created.
How many images is the best recommendation? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have an image named Image1 that contains an installation of Windows 8.1 Pro.
Image1 will be deployed by using Windows Deployments Services (WDS).
You need to ensure that all of the Internet Information Services components are installed when Image1 is deployed.
Which tool should you run before you deploy the image?
A. Enable-WindowsOptionalFeature
B. Add-WindowsPackage
C. imagex.exe
D. wdsutil.exe
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com that has two sites named Site1 and Site2.
The contoso.com domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) is installed on both of the servers. Server1 is located in Site1 and Server2 is located in Site2.
You perform the following actions on Server1:
* Import an operating system.
* Import drivers.
* Create a task sequence.
You copy the deployment share from Server1 to Server2 and you open the share on Server2 as MDTShare2.
You discover that clients that connect to MDTShare2 are deployed from Server1.
You need to ensure that the clients that connect to MDTShare2 are deployed from Server2.
What should you modify on Server2?
A. Bootstrap.ini
B. Customsettings.ini
C. The Rules properties of MDTShare2
D. the General properties of MDTShare2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You maintain a base operating system image for your company. The image does not contain hardware-specific drivers. The image is distributed to the desktop support team, which is responsible for maintaining a driver repository on a file share named Share1. 70-695 dumps
You have a client computer named Client1 that runs Windows 8.1 Enterprise. Client1 will be used as the reference computer for the next version of the base image.
You plan to generalize Client1, capture an image of Client1, and then distribute the image to the desktop support team.
You need to configure a Sysprep answer file to ensure that the next time the image starts, device drivers from Share1 are added to the local driver repository. The solution must ensure that the drivers are added without entering the Out-ofBox-Experience (OOBE) phase.
Which configuration pass in the unattended file should you configure?
A. specialize
B. auditSystem
C. generalize
D. windowsPE
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
You have a client computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
You install the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) on Computer1.
You sign in to Computer1 as a local user named User1. You insert the Windows 8.1 installation media into the DVD drive on Computer1.
You need to use Windows ADK to create an answer file for the deployment of Windows 8.1 Enterprise.
What should you do first?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run Copy-Item
B. From Windows System Image Manager, click Import Package(s).
C. From Windows System Image Manager, click Create Configuration Set…
D. From Deployment and Imaging Tools Environment run dism.exe and specify the Mount-Wim parameter.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You have a Windows Deployment Services (WDS) server.
You have a custom install image of Windows 8.1 Enterprise named Image1. The image is in an image group named ImageGroup1 and is the only image in the group.
You need to ensure that only users who are the members of a security group named Admins can deploy Image1 by using PXE.
What should you use?
A. the Deny-WdsClient cmdlet and the RequestID parameter
B. the Set-WdsClient cmdlet and the Group parameter
C. the Set-WdslnstallImage cmdlet and the UserFilter parameter
D. the Approve-WdsClient cmdlet and the RequestID parameter
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the DEPARTMENTS and EMPLOYEES tables.
1Z0-071 dumps
To retrieve data for all the employees for their EMPLOYEE_ID, FIRST_NAME, and DEPARTMENT NAME, the following SQL statement was written:
SELECT employee_id, first_name, department_name
FROM employees NATURAL JOIN departments;
The desired output is not obtained after executing the above SQL statement. What could be the reason for this?
A. The NATURAL JOIN clause is missing the USING clause.
B. The table prefix is missing for the column names in the SELECT clause.
C. The DEPARTMENTS table is not used before the EMPLOYEES table in the FROM clause.
D. The EMPLOYEES and DEPARTMENTS tables have more than one column with the same column name and data type.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
View the Exhibit for the structure of the STUDENT and FACULTY tables.
1Z0-071 dumps
You need to display the faculty name followed by the number of students handled by the faculty at the base location. Examine the following two SQL statements:
1Z0-071 dumps
Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Only statement 1 executes successfully and gives the required result.
B. Only statement 2 executes successfully and gives the required result.
C. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give different results.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give the same required result.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding the COUNT function? (Choose two.)
A. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows including duplicate rows and rows containing NULL value in any of the columns
B. COUNT(cust_id) returns the number of rows including rows with duplicate customer IDs and NULL value in the CUST_ID column
C. COUNT(DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULL values in the INV_AMT column
D. A SELECT statement using COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause
E. The COUNT function can be used only for CHAR, VARCHAR2 and NUMBER data types
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
Using the COUNT Function
The COUNT function has three formats:
COUNT(*)
COUNT(expr)
COUNT(DISTINCT expr)
COUNT(*) returns the number of rows in a table that satisfy the criteria of the SELECT statement, including duplicate rows and rows containing null values in any of the columns. If a WHERE clause is included in the SELECT statement, COUNT(*) returns the number of rows that satisfy the condition in the WHERE clause.
In contrast,
COUNT(expr) returns the number of non-null values that are in the column identified by expr.
COUNT(DISTINCT expr) returns the number of unique, non-null values that are in the column identified by expr.

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about Data Manipulation Language (DML) statements?
A. AH INSERT INTO. . .VALUES. . statement can add multiple rows per execution to a table.
B. An UPDATE…SET… statement can modify multiple rows based on multiple conditions on a table.
C. A DELETE FROM ….. statement can remove rows based on only a single condition on a table.
D. An INSERT INTO…VALUES….. statement can add a single row based on multiple conditions on a table.
E. A DELETE FROM….. statement can remove multiple rows based on multiple conditions on a table.
F. An UPDATE…SET…. statement can modify multiple rows based on only a single condition on a table.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which two statements are true about sequences created in a single instance database? (Choose two.)
A. CURRVAL is used to refer to the last sequence number that has been generated
B. DELETE would remove a sequence from the database
C. The numbers generated by a sequence can be used only for one table
D. When the MAXVALUE limit for a sequence is reached, you can increase the MAXVALUE limit by using the ALTER SEQUENCE statement
E. When a database instance shuts down abnormally, the sequence numbers that have been cached but not used would be available once again when the database instance is restarted
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation:
Gaps in the Sequence
Although sequence generators issue sequential numbers without gaps, this action occurs independent of a commit or rollback. Therefore, if you roll back a statement containing a sequence, the number is lost.
Another event that can cause gaps in the sequence is a system crash. If the sequence caches values in memory, those values are lost if the system crashes.
Because sequences are not tied directly to tables, the same sequence can be used for multiple tables.
However, if you do so, each table can contain gaps in the sequential numbers.
Modifying a Sequence
If you reach the MAXVALUE limit for your sequence, no additional values from the sequence are allocated and you will receive an error indicating that the sequence exceeds the MAXVALUE. To continue to use the sequence, you can modify it by using the ALTER SEQUENCE statement To remove a sequence, use the DROP statement:
DROP SEQUENCE dept_deptid_seq;

QUESTION 6
You issue the following command to drop the PRODUCTS table:
SQL>DROP TABLE products;
What is the implication of this command? 1Z0-071 dumps (Choose all that apply.)
A. All data in the table are deleted but the table structure will remain
B. All data along with the table structure is deleted
C. All viewsand synonyms will remain but they are invalidated
D. The pending transaction in the session is committed
E. All indexes on the table will remain but they are invalidated
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
You execute the following commands:
1Z0-071 dumps
For which substitution variables are you prompted for the input?
A. None, because no input required
B. Both the substitution variables ‘hiredate’ and ‘mgr_id\
C. Only ‘hiredate’
D. Only ‘mgr_id’
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Evaluate the following two queries:
1Z0-071 dumps
Which statement is true regarding the above two queries?
A. Performance would improve query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST__CREDIT__LIMIT column.
B. There would be no change in performance.
C. Performance would degrade in query 2.
D. Performance would improve in query 2.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The BOOKS_TRANSACTIONStable exists in your database.
Examine the SQL statement:
SQL>SELECT * FROM books_transactionsORDER BY 3;
What is the outcome on execution?
A. The execution tails unless the numeral 3 in the order by clause is replaced by a column name,
B. Rows are displayed in the order that they are stored in the table only for the three rows with the lowest values in the key column.
C. Rows are displayed in the order that they are stored in the table only for the first three rows.
D. Rows are displayed sorted in ascending order of the values in the third column in the table.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table.
Which SQL statement would retrieve from the table the number of products having LIST_PRICE as NULL?
1Z0-071 dumps
A. SELECT COUNT(list_price)
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price IS NULL;
B. SELECT COUNT(list_price)
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price = NULL;
C. SELECT COUNT(NVL(list_price, 0))
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price IS NULL;
D. SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT list_price)
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price IS NULL;
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The first DROP operation is performed on PRODUCTS table using the following command:
DROP TABLE products PURGE;
Then you performed the FLASHBACK operation by using the following command:
FLASHBACK TABLE products TO BEFORE DROP;
Which statement describes the outcome of the FLASHBACK command?
A. It recovers only the table structure.
B. It recovers the table structure, data, and the indexes.
C. It recovers the table structure and data but not the related indexes.
D. It is not possible to recover the table structure, data, or the related indexes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table:
Exhibit:
1Z0-071 dumps
Using the PROMOTIONS table, you need to find out the average cost for all promos in the range $0-2000 and $2000-5000 in category A.
You issue the following SQL statements:
Exhibit:
1Z0-071 dumps
What would be the outcome?
A. It generates an error because multiple conditions cannot be specified for the WHEN clause
B. It executes successfully and gives the required result
C. It generates an error because CASE cannot be used with group functions
D. It generates an error because NULL cannot be specified as a return value
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
CASE Expression
Facilitates conditional inquiries by doing the work of an IF-THEN-ELSE statement:
CASE expr WHEN comparison_expr1 THEN return_expr1 [WHEN comparison_expr2 THEN return_expr2
WHEN comparison_exprn THEN return_exprn
ELSE else_expr]
END

QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit and examine the data in ORDERS_MASTER and MONTHLYjDRDERS tables.
1Z0-071 dumps
Evaluate the following MERGE statement:
MERGE INTO orders_master o
USING monthly_orders m
ON (o.order_id = m.order_id)
WHEN MATCHED THEN
UPDATE SET o.order_total = m.order_total
DELETE WHERE (m.order_total IS NULL)
WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN
INSERT VALUES (m.order_id, m.order_total);
What would be the outcome of the above statement?
A. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1 and 2.
B. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1,2 and 3.
C. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1,2 and 4.
D. The ORDERS MASTER table would contain the ORDER IDs 1,2,3 and 4.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which statements are true regarding the WHERE and HAVING clauses in a SELECT statement? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The HAVING clause can be used with aggregate functions in subqueries.
B. The WHERE clause can be used to exclude rows after dividing them into groups.
C. The WHERE clause can be used to exclude rows before dividing them into groups.
D. The aggregate functions and columns used in the HAVING clause must be specified in the SELECT list of the query.
E. The WHERE and HAVING clauses can be used in the same statement only if they are applied to different columns in the table.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Examine the commands used to createDEPARTMENT_DETAILS andCOURSE_DETAILS:
1Z0-071 dumps
You want to generate a list of all department IDs along with any course IDs that may have been assigned to them.
Which SQL statement must you use?
1Z0-071 dumps
1Z0-071 dumps
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Evaluate the following ALTER TABLE statement:
ALTER TABLE orders
SET UNUSED order_date;
Which statement is true?
A. The DESCRIBE command would still display the ORDER_DATE column.
B. ROLLBACK can be used to get back the ORDER_DATE column in the ORDERS table.
C. The ORDER_DATE column should be empty for the ALTER TABLE command to execute successfully.
D. After executing the ALTER TABLE command, you can add a new column called ORDER_DATE to the ORDERS table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which normal form is a table in if it has no multi-valued attributes and no partial dependencies? 1Z0-071 dumps
A. First normal form
B. Second normal form
C. Third normal form
D. Fourth normal form
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SELECT product_name || ‘it’s not available for order’
FROM product_information
WHERE product_status = ‘obsolete’;
You received the following error while executing the above query:
ERROR:
ORA-01756: quoted string not properly terminated
What would you do to execute the query successfully?
A. Enclose the character literal string in the SELECT clause within the double quotation marks.
B. Do not enclose the character literal string in the SELECT clause within the single quotation marks.
C. Use Quote (q) operator and delimiter to allow the use of single quotation mark in the literal character string.
D. Use escape character to negate the single quotation mark inside the literal character string in the SELECT clause.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS and CUST_HISTORY tables.
1Z0-071 dumps
The CUSTOMERS table contains the current location of all currently active customers. The CUST_HISTORY table stores historical details relating to any changes in the location of all current as well as previous customers who are no longer active with the company.
You need to find those customers who have never changed their address.
Which SET operator would you use to get the required output?
A. INTERSECT
B. UNION ALL
C. MINUS
D. UNION
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Evaluate the following SELECT statement and view the Exhibit to examine its output:
1Z0-071 dumps
SELECT constraint_name, constraint_type, search_condition, r_constraint_name, delete_rule, status FROM user_constraints WHERE table_name = ORDERS
Which two statements are true about the output? (Choose two.)
A. In the second column, indicates a check constraint.
B. The STATUS column indicates whether the table is currently in use.
C. The R_CONSTRAINT_NAME column gives the alternative name for the constraint.
D. The column DELETE_RULE decides the state of the related rows in the child table when the corresponding row is deleted from the parent table.
Correct Answer: AD

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100% Pass Best Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-883 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
In comparing IS-IS with OSPF, a Level-1-2 IS-IS router is similar to which kind of OSPF router?
A. ASBR on a normal OSPF area
B. ASBR on NSSA
C. ABR on totally stubby OSPF area
D. ABR on stubby OSPF area
E. ABR on a normal OSPF area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the topology diagram in the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Which IS-IS feature could be implemented so that the return path for the packets from router Y in area 49.00AA to router X in area 49.00BB will use the more optimal path?
A. Enable route leaking to pass Level 2 information into the Level 1 routers.
B. Change the area 49.00AA type from a stub area to a regular area.
C. Change the IS-IS administrative distance on router Y in area 49.00AA.
D. Change the IS-IS metric type from narrow to wide on all IS-IS routers.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Which two configuration options can be used to optimize the IS-IS network scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 2.
B. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 1.
C. Change the gi0/0 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1 and R2 to Level 2 only.
D. Change the gi0/1 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1and R2 to Level 1.
E. Change the IS type for all the routers to Level-1-2.
F. Change the IS-IS network type for all the routers to point-to-point.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
The Cisco IOS XE Software summary-address router IS-IS configuration command can be used to send a summarized route into which IS-IS hierarchy?
A. Level 1 only
B. Level 2 only
C. Level-1-2 only
D. Level 1 or Level 2 or Level-1-2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the Cisco IOS XE IS-IS configuration exhibit.
642-883 dumps
What are two problems with the configuration that are causing the IPv4, or the IPv6, or the IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS operations to fail? (Choose two.)
A. The configuration is missing the interface gi0/0 and interface gi0/0 commands under router isis 1.
B. The configuration is missing the address-family ipv4 unicast and address-family ipv6 unicast commands under router isis 1.
C. IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled globally on the Cisco IOS XE router.
D. The gi0/0 and gi0/1 interfaces are not participating in the router isis 1 routing instance.
E. Multitopology IS-IS must be enabled to support both IPv4 and IPv6.
F. Another router isis instance must be enabled to support IPv6.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
In which network environment is IS-IS adjacency check important?
A. in a multitopology environment where there are different instances of IS-IS running on the same router
B. in an IPv4/IPv6 environment and running single-topology IS-IS
C. when a level L1/L2 IS-IS router is neighboring with a Level 1 only or Level 2 only router
D. when IS-IS neighbors are in an NBMA environment like over Frame Relay
E. when IS-IS neighbors are in a broadcast environment like an Ethernet LAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the IS-IS configuration exhibit.
642-883 dumps
This is the typical IS-IS configuration of the routers in an AS using IS-IS as the IGP. This AS is in the transition phase of integrating IPv6 into the network. 642-883 dumps During this transition phase, some of the routers within the AS might be running IPv4 only, some might be running IPv6 only, and others might be running both IPv4 and IPv6. To avoid any black holes for the IPv6 traffic, which configuration change can be made?
A. Disable IS-IS adjacency checks.
B. Enable IPv6 adjacency over IPv4 IS-IS peering.
C. Enable multi-topology IS-IS.
D. Disable the IPv4 unicast address-family.
E. Enable IS-IS wide metric to support the single-topology mode.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
When implementing OSPF, which type of networks require DR/BDR election?
A. point-to-point networks
B. mutli-access broadcast networks
C. non-broadcast multi-access networks (Hub and Spoke Frame Relay) using point-to-multipoint OSPF network type
D. All networks type
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The S bit in the MPLS header is used for what purpose?
A. To indicate the bottom level in the label stack
B. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
C. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
D. To indicate the status of the LSP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.)
A. to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops
B. to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers
C. to improve BGP convergence time
D. to tune the BGP update interval
E. to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
When using the show bgp ipv6 unicast summary command to verify the IPv6 BGP session status with the IPv6 BGP peers, you noticed the “St/PfxRcd” status for one of the IPv6 BGP peers is in the “Active” state. What does the “Active” state indicate?
A. The IPv6 BGP session has been established with the IPv6 BGP peer.
B. The router is in the process of sending BGP routing updates to the IPv6 BGP peer.
C. The router is in the process of establishing the IPv6 BGP session with the IPv6 BGP peer.
D. The router is exchanging BGP notification messages with its IPv6 BGP peer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which three BGP configuration groupings are supported on Cisco IOS XR Software? (Choose three.)
A. peer-group
B. af-group
C. bgp-group
D. session-group
E. neighbor-group
F. as-group
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 13
Which AS path access list is used by a multihomed customer to only announce their own address space to their service providers to prevent the multihomed customer from becoming a transit AS?
A. ip as-path access-list permit.*
B. ip as-path access-list permit^$
C. ip as-path access-list permit _$
D. ip as-path access-list permit _^
E. ip as-path access-list permit local-asip as-path access-list deny *
F. ip as-path access-list deny.*ip as-path access-list permit *
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What is recursive lookup in BGP and how does it work?
A. The router looks up the EBGP route and the EBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the EBGP next hop using the IBGP.
B. The router looks up the IBGP route and the IBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the IBGP next hop using the EBGP.
C. The router looks up the BGP route and the BGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the BGP next hop using the IGP.
D. The router looks up the route and the next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS using the IGP. Then the router looks up the route to reach the next hop using BGP.
E. The router perform three routing lookups to determine the route to reach a destination in the remote AS. The first lookup is done using EBGP, the second lookup is done using IBGP, and the third lookup is done using the IGP.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which reserved AS number or range of numbers is used for backward compatibility between old BGP peers using 16-bit AS number and new BGP peers using 32-bit AS number?
A. AS 65001 to 65535
B. AS 65512 to 65535
C. AS 12345
D. AS 23456
E. AS 64001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which BGP attribute is a set of generic tags that can be used to signal various routing policies between BGP routers?
A. AS path
B. MED
C. weight
D. communities
E. route tags
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a characteristic of dual-multihomed connectivity between an enterprise network and the service provider network or networks?
A. An enterprise network that is connected to two or more different service providers with two or more links per service provider and using BGP to exchange routing updates with the service providers.
B. Each service provider announces a default route on each of the links that connect to the customer with a different metric.
C. An enterprise network announces a default route to each service provider.
D. Load balancing can be achieved using the maximum-paths command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What are two ways to advertise networks into BGP? (Choose two.)
A. using the neighbor router BGP command
B. using a route policy in Cisco IOS XR Software or using a route map in Cisco IOS Software or Cisco IOS XE Software
C. using route redistribution into BGP
D. using the network router BGP command
E. enabling an interface to run BGP using the interface router BGP command
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Refer to the network diagram in the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Assuming the IBGP session within AS 64500 was established using the loopback 0 interface between the two routers, by default, what will be the next hop of the routes from AS 64501 when the routes appear on the router running IBGP only in AS 64500?
A. 192.168.101.11
B. 192.168.101.10
C. 10.1.1.1
D. 10.0.1.1
E. 10.1.10.1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
When configuring BGP on Cisco IOS XR Software, which address-family is enabled by default?
A. IPv4 unicast
B. IPv6 unicast
C. VPNv4
D. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast
E. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast and VPNv4
F. No address-family is enabled by default.
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 21
An engineer is using configuration blocks to build policy-based routing. All other traffic must not be affected and the policy must be applied to GigabitEthernet1/0. 642-883 dumps Which block correctly implements traffic that is destined for 10.10.10.0/24 using a next hop of 192.168.55.1?
A. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
B. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
route-map PBR permit 20
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
C. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
D. access-list 110 permit ip any 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 route-map PBR permit 10
match ip address 110
set next-hop 192.168.55.1
route-map PBR permit 20
interface GigabitEthernet1/0
ip policy route-map PBR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
An engineer is working on routers within AS 100. Which regular expression can be used in an AS path access list to match locally originated routes from AS 100?
A. ^100$
B. ^$
C. _100$
D. ^[0-9]*$
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which option is a mechanism that can be implemented between two eBGP peers to communicate the routes each peer needs from the other?
A. ORF
B. ACL
C. prefix list
D. route map
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
A Cisco IOS XR router is a member in OSPF 1 and EIGRP 100 domains, and needs to redistribute OSPF learned routes into EIGRP. Which configuration achieves this goal?
A. router eigrp 100
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 1
B. router eigrp 100
redistribute ospf 1 route-policy OS_INTO_EIG
route-policy OS_INTO_EIG set eigrp-metric 100 10 255 1 155
C. router eigrp 100
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 1 route-policy OS_INTO_EIG
route-policy OS_INTO_EIG set eigrp-metric 100 10 255 1 155
D. router eigrp 100
default-metric 100 1 255 1 1500
redistribute ospf 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which value must be configured when redistributing OSPFv2 into RIP?
A. metric
B. bandwidth
C. delay
D. MTU
E. reliability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which option can a network specialist use to configure connected route redistribution inside VRF “TEST” on Cisco IOS XR and allow only the prefix 10.10.10.0/24?
A. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if destination in PERMIT_PREFIX then
pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN
B. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if source in PERMIT_PREFIX then
pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN
C. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if protocol is connected and source in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN”
D. route-policy ALLOW-CONN
if route-type is local and destination in PERMIT_PREFIX then pass
else
drop
end-policy
prefix-set PERMIT_PREFIX
10.10.10.0/24
end-set
router bgp 65000
vrf TEST
rd 65000:10000
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute connected route-policy ALLOW-CONN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A static default route has been inserted into the configuration of a Cisco IOS XE router. Which option redistributes the route into the local OSPF process?
A. router ospf 1
redistribute static subnets
B. router ospf 1
redistribute static
C. router ospf 1
redistribute static subnets
default-information originate always
D. router ospf 1
network 0.0.0.0 area 0
redistribute static subnets
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Routers B and C in transit AS 200 are the exit points toward AS 100 and AS 300. Router B is running Cisco IOS XR and Router C IOS XE. Internally, AS 200 runs OPSF only for internal routing. 642-883 dumps Which two methods can an engineer use to ensure proper reach ability between AS 100 and AS 300 for the needed routes? (Choose two.)
A. Router B:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 tag 20
router bgp 200
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute ospf 200 metric-type 2
B. Router B:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200
router bgp 200
address-family ipv4 unicast
redistribute ospf 200
C. Router C:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 200
D. Router C:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 200 match external 2
E. Router C:
router ospf 200
redistribute bgp 200 metric-type 1 subnets tag 200 router bgp 200
address-family ipv4
redistribute ospf 200 route-map match-tag match external route-map match-tag deny 10 match tag 200
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 29
Which two methods implement high availability in OSPF on Cisco IOS XR? (Choose two.)
A. NSF
B. NSR
C. BFD
D. fast hellos
E. sham-links
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 30
Nonstop Forwarding works with the Stateful Switchover feature in Cisco IOS and IOS XR software. Which three restrictions for OSPF are true? (Choose three.)
A. OSPF NSF for virtual links is not supported.
B. OSPF NSF for virtual links is supported.
C. OSPF NSF for sham links is not supported.
D. OSPF NSF for sham links is supported.
E. OSPF NSF supports NSF/SSO for IPv6 traffic only.
F. OSPF NSF supports NSF/SSO for IPv4 traffic only.
Correct Answer: ACF

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Useful Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which option is the Cisco cloud management platform that is designed for enterprise and public sector IT organizations to help build private and hybrid clouds?
A. Cisco Cloud Orchestrator
B. Cisco UCS Director
C. Cisco Intercloud Fabric
D. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
400-201 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. An MPLS VPN service was provisioned for customer ABC both sites must be communication to each other primarily over the wan link with no traffic over the wan circuits PE1 has the same configuration as PE2 which two commands can be configure on the PEs to accomplish the desired goal?(Choose two)
A. Under sub interface IP VRF SITEMAP SoO with the same SoO value.
B. no neighbor <CE-IP address> AS-override.
C. Neighbor<CE-IP address> route-map SoO in with the same SoO value.
D. Neighbor<CE-IP address> route-map SoO in with a different SoO value.
E. Neighbor<CE-IP address> route-map SoOout with the same SoO value.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
400-201 dumps
Refer to the exhibit Customer ABC is peering with two service providers for internet access. In order to prevent the AS 100 from becoming a transit AS between ISP_1 and ISP_2. Which BGP configuration must be applied to achieve this goal?
A. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^100$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100
neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
B. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100
neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
C. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100
neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
D. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^11$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10
match as-path 1 match as-path 1
router bgp 100 router bgp 100
neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY out
E. CE1# CE2#
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ ip as-path access-list 1 permit^$ route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 route-map LOCAL_ONLY permit 10 match as-path 1 match as-path 1 router bgp 100 router bgp 100
neighbor 1.1.2.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in neighbor 1.1.1.2 route-map LOCAL_ONLY in
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A network operation engineer has these requirement:
*prevent multicast transit when it is enforced by unicast stub routing.
*Reduce the overall processing of PIM control traffic. Especially when the number of stub links increases on the stub device.
*protect against multicast spoofing of PM designated router messages and PIM assert messages.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. explicit tracking of receivers.
B. multicast stub routing.
C. Source Specific Multicast.
D. PIM allow RP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which option is the benefit of per-link LFA over per-prefix LFA?
A. It has a greater applicability
B. It provides greater protection coverage
C. It is simpler
D. It enables better bandwidth utilization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which standard provides insurance that the new hardware rollout plan meets certain environment design guidelines before deployment?
A. NAS
B. eTOM
C. NEBS
D. ITIL
E. COBIT
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
ISP A provides L2VPN services to Company B through an MPLS network. Company B uses all available CoS values to classify and different traffic forwarding within all Company B sites. 400-201 dumps ISP A uses the following CoS values to differentiate service classes for the VPN customer traffic
*MPLS EXP 0 for Bronze service class
*MPLS EXP 1 for Silver service class
*MPLS EXP 2 for Gold service class
*Remaining MPLS EXP values for ISP A internal use
ISP A’s policy is to forward VPN customer traffic based only on their Bronze, silver and Gold service classes. Which QoS method must ISP A implement to achieve this?
A. Short-pipe Mode
B. Russian Doll Model
C. Pipe Mode
D. Uniform Mode
E. Maximum Allocation Model
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which two options are characteristics of MoFRR? ( Choose two)
A. Uses additional PIM join toward source
B. Based on multicast forward error correction feature
C. Based on PIM Fast Route
D. Requires MPLS TE FRR enabled with link protection and node protection
E. Utilizes two equal-cost paths toward source
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
Which routing table is used by PEs and ASBRs to store all VPN routes that need to be exchanged in an Inter-AS L3VPN option B scenario?
A. IGP table
B. VRF routing table
C. Global routing table
D. BGP table
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
In the MC-LAG environment, which two statements about clustering HA are true?
A. Public connection is used to access the active node of cluster from the outside cluster
B. Private connection is used to connect the nodes of the cluster for private communication
C. Private connection is used to access the active node of cluster from the outside cluster
D. Public connection is used to connect the nodes of cluster for private communication
E. Public connection is used to monitor the health and status of each node in the HA cluster using the heartbeat system
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
400-201 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. After the BGP TCP negotiation between Router A and Router B, what will be the value of the keep alive timer and the hold-down timer, respectively?
A. 3 seconds and 9 seconds
B. 60 seconds and 180 seconds
C. 10 seconds and 9 seconds
D. no value, because BGP negotiation will not be successful
E. 10 seconds and 10 seconds
F. 10 seconds and 30 seconds
G. 3 seconds and 30 seconds
H. 3 seconds and 10 seconds
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which are two benefits of using segment routing over RSVP-TE for traffic engineering? (Choose two)
A. Segment routing traffic engineering tunnels always follow the low-latency path
B. ECMP-aware traffic engineering is natively supported by segment routing
C. Per-flow state is present only at the ingress node to the Segment routing-enabled network
D. Per-flow state is present at the ingress and egress node to the segment routing-enabled network
E. Per-flow state is maintained on all nodes of the segment routing-enabled network
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Which three PIM modes require RP? (Choose three)
A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM with mLDP
D. PIM-SSM
E. PIM anycast
F. PIM-BIDIR
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 14
Which option is the benefit of per-link LFA over per-prefix LFA?
A. It has a greater applicability
B. It provides greater protection coverage
C. It is simpler
D. It enables better bandwidth utilization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
In which two ways does the BGP graceful restart capability preserve prefix information during a restart? (Choose two.)
A. The peer router sends an end -of RIB message to the restarting router
B. The peer router immediately removes the BGP routes that it learned from the restarting router from its BGP routing table
C. The restarting router waits to receive updates from the neighboring routers.
D. The restarting router does not remove any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries exTs.
E. The restarting router removes any stale prefixes after the timer for stale entries expires
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 16
What is the port number of an IPsec Encapsulating Security Payload packet? (ESP)
A. IP protocol 51
B. UDP port 50
C. Ip protocol 50
D. TCP Port 50
E. UDP port 51
F. TCP port 51
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. An engineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp autoconfig command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A network engineer has a requirement to configure IP flow exporting using standard protocols on a cisco IOS XE device. Which configuration achieves this goal?
A. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
export-protocol version 9
transport udp 90
B. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
source Loopback 0
transport udp 90
C. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
source Loopback 0
transport udp 90
version ipfix
D. flow exporter EXPORTER
destination 10.1.1.1
export-protocol ipfix
transport udp 90
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
A customer has a requirements record voice calls for IPT connected on switch A using VLAN 200.Record traffic should be forwarded to the IPCC recording server, which is connected on switch B, voice recording is not working. 400-201 dumps Assuming that RSPAN source monitoring is properly set, which action fixes this problem?
A. On switch B, the monitor session 1 destination remote <interface_config_to_recording_server> command must be applied
B. On switch B, the port connects to the recording server must have an IP address and be accessible via VLAN 200
C. On switch B, the port that connects to the reording server must be accessed on VLAN
D. On switch A and switch B, the remote-span command must be configured on the mirroring dedicated VLAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
A service provider engineering team must design a solution that supports end-to-end LSPS for multiple IGP domains within different AS numbers. According to RFC 3107, which solution achieves this goal?
A. LDP and BGP
B. BGP and Send-label
C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF
D. RSVP and BGP
E. mLDP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
A service provider is implementing an nV Edge system with the two ASR 9000 chassis has two RSPs. Which two cabling methods reflect the minimum configuration needed for full synchronization between the two Cisco ASR 9000 chassis? (Choose two)
A. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two RSPs between the two chassis via Layer 2 connections
B. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the EOBC 10 Gbps ports of the RSPs
C. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the ports of the line cards
D. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two chassis via Layer 3 connections using the 10 Gbps ports of the line cards
E. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 1 connections using the10 Gbps ports of the line cards
F. Create the single virtual control plane that connect the two chassis via 100 Gbps bundle interfaces
G. Create the IRL connections between the two chassis via Layer 1 connections using the EOBC 10 Gbps ports of the RSPs
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 22
A service provider offers four classes of service for MPLS VPN customer with the following IPP/EXP values
A. voice=5
ii. video=4
iii. priority-data =3
iv. best-effort data=0
The service provider also supports multicast VPN services in the priority data and best- effort classes.
Multicast VPN is implemented as a draft-rosen profile. On a P router, in the MPLS core, the ingress.
QoS policy-map must classify all incoming packets, so that different classes of traffic can be properly handled in fabric queues and egress queues. All types of packets in the core network must be covered’ Which ingress classification offers the optimal performance and provides the minimum number of actions that match the service provider QoS requirements?
B. class-map match-any VOICE
match mpls experiment topmost 5
class-map match-any VIDEO
match mpls experiment topmost 4
class-map match-any CONTROL
match mpls experiment topmost 6
class-map match-any PRIORITY
match mpls experimental topmost 3
!
policy-map INGRESS
class VOICE
set qos-group 5
class VIDEO
set qos-group 4
class CONTROL
set qos-group 6
class PRIORITY
set qos-group 3
class class-default
C. class-map match-any VOICE
match mpls experiment topmost 5
class-map match-any VIDEO
match mpls experiment topmost 4
class-map match-any CONTROL
match mpls experiment topmost 6 7
match ip precedence ipv4 internet network
class-map match-any PRIORITY
match mpls experimental topmost 3
match ip precedence ipv4 flash
!
policy-map INGRESS
class VOICE
set qos-group 5
class VIDEO
set qos-group 4
class CONTROL
set qos-group 6
class PRIORITY
set qos-group 3
class class-default
D. class-map match-any VOICE
match mpls experiment topmost 5
match ip precedence ipv4 critical
class-map match-any VIDEO
match mpls experiment topmost 4
match ip precedence ipv4 flash-override
class-map match-any PRIORITY
match mpls experimental topmost 3
match ip precedence ipv4 flash
!
policy-map INGRESS
class VOICE
set qos-group 5
class VIDEO
set qos-group 4
class PRIORITY
set qos-group 3
class class-default
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
An engineer deploys a new Cisco IOS XR router and connects a Gigbit Ethernet port to an existing Cisco Catalyst 3650 Series Switch. The engineer uses known good optics and fiber, but the link has not come up and it is stuck in the down/down state.
What is the root cause of this issue?
A. Cisco IOS XR devices must use copper connections to Catalyst 3650 Series Switches
B. UDLD must be enabled on the Catalyst 3650 Series switch
C. CDP is not enabled on the Cisco IOS XR device
D. Auto negation must be disabled on the Catalyst 3650 Series Switch
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
In a multihop BFD scenario, which two options create a multihop template and associate it with maps of destinations and associated timers? (Choose two)
A. Fallover BFD
B. BFD echo
C. BFD map
D. BFD template
E. BFD version 2
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 25
400-201 dumps
Refer to the exhibit PIM sparse mode is implemented in the network RPF succeeds under which condition?
A. The RPF check succeeds for the highest DR priority for the PIM router
B. The RPF check succeeds for both PIM neighbors, and traffic load-balances across both neighbors
C. The RPF check succeeds for the next hop whose router ID is the highest
D. The RPF check succeeds for the highest interface IP address for the PIM router
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
An engineer is connecting a new 10-Gbps Ethernet link. Which type of transceiver must the Engineer purchase that is the current industry standard?
A. GBIC
B. XFP
C. X2
D. SFP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
400-201 dumps
Refer to the exhibit what is the status of the L2 tunnel between PE1,PE2 and the layer 2 switches ?
A. The layer 2 tunnel is down due to the ACL is applied on the PE2 interface
B. The layer 2 tunnel is up and SW1 become the root bridge for VLAN 10
C. The layer 2 tunnel is down due to the MTU mismatch between SW1 and SW2
D. The layer 2 tunnel is up but no BPDUs are exchange unless an extra configuration is applied
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Service providers that implement MPLS Inter-AS Option B must ensure that the ASBRs between each provider learn all VPNv4 routers from both providers. 400-201 dumps How can this requirements be accomplished?
A. Ensure that each ASBR is configured for all VRFs from within its own provider backbone
B. Configure each ASBR to retain route targets for all VPNv-4 learned routes
C. Configure the VRFs form the connecting provider in order to learn route targets on each ASBR
D. Ensure that LDP is conjured between each ASBR for label exchange on all VRFs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
IPv6 multicast is enabled in a VPLS domain. An operations engineer must reduce the multicast flooding in this VPLS domain. Which feature constrains IPv6 traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ports dynamically to forward IPv6 multicast traffic only to those ports that want to receive it?
A. IGMP snooping
B. MLD snooping
C. MLD querier
D. IGMP version 3
E. MLD version 2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
In the Dual Stack lite solution, what is the function of the B4 component?
A. It acts as an endpoint for the IPv6 in IPv4 encapsulation and forwarding
B. It decapsulates the tunneled IPV4 packets, translate the network address, and routes to the IPv4 network
C. It encapsulates the customer IPv4 packets using IPv6 tunnel and second to the AFTR
D. It reverses network address translated of the eipv4 packets coming from the internet and it sends the resultant IPv4 packets to AFTR
Correct Answer: C

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Latest Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-150 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file. Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial number?
A. MDS-A# show license serial-number
B. MDS- A# show running-config | include serial-number
C. MDS- A# show host-id
D. MDS- A# show license host-id
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two are functions of the data center access layer? (Choose two)
A. server connections
B. VLAN creation
C. packet filtering
D. high data transfer rate
E. high network fault tolerance
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.)
A. Bus
B. Token passing bus
C. Star
D. Extended star
E. Ring
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
200-150 dumps
What type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802 3 frame
B. TCP packet
C. UDP packet
D. Ethernet frame
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?
A. eq
B. deny
C. host
D. all
E. any
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Which two VTP modes allow the creation of local VLANs? 200-150 dumps (Choose two.)
A. transparent
B. native
C. server
D. client
E. on
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
A. PDUs
B. Bits
C. Sequences
D. Segments
E. Packets
F. Frames
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 8
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE

Explanation:
“In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a virtual local area network, virtual LAN or VLAN.”
“A router (Layer 3 device) serves as the backbone for network traffic going across different VLANs.”

QUESTION 9
An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started.
Which two items can be configured during this setup process?
A. default port-channel mode
B. default port VSAN membership
C. default switch port interface state
D. default zone mode
E. default storage VDC
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A SAN administrator recently added a new zone to the VSAN 2 zone set named zone set2, but the server is still unable to access the shared storage.
Which command will resolve this issue?
A. zone copy active-zoneset ful-zoneset
B. zoneset activate zoneset2
C. zone default-zone permit vsan 2
D. copy running 璫onfig startup-config
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
200-150 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. TCP frame
C. Ethernet packet
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
200-150 dumps
200-150 dumps
200-150 dumps
200-150 dumps
200-150 dumps
200-150 dumps
200-150 dumps
Which statement Is true regarding configuring NPV mode?
A. When you enable NPV, the system configuration is erased and t* switch reboots
B. When you enable NPV. the system configuration is not erased and the does not switch reboot
C. In Exhibit 3 NPV is enabled. but Server interface to the external switch is not bed to correct vfc 2/1.
D. m NPV mode, the core switch relays traffic from server-side ports to the edge switch and core swtich provides N ports.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
On which two components of a router can a copy of a running-configuration file be saved manually by an engineer for backup purposes? (Choose two.)
A. NVRAM
B. Flash
C. ROM
D. RAM
E. DRAM
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
Which address and subnet combination is valid for a host assignment?
A. 172.23.175.210/15
B. 10.100.74.127/25
C. 192.168.73.223/29
D. 10.230.33.15/28
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which two options are multicast addresses? 200-150 dumps (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 17
What layer of the OSI Model provides the logical addressing that routers use for path determination?
A. transport
B. network
C. application
D. presentation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Switch A has BPDU fitering configured on all active interfaces. A second switch, Switch B, is connected to Switch A. Which two actions will Switch A take when Switch B is connected to it? (Choose two.)
A. Switch A will not send any BPDUs.
B. Switch A will transition the port a normal spanning tree port.
C. Switch A will not accept any BPDUs
D. Switch A will errdisable the port.
E. Switch A will start sending BPDUs to Switch B.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
Which VTP mode disallows the creation of local VLANs?
A. transparent
B. tunneling
C. server
D. client
E. off
F. native
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
“A VTP client behaves like a VTP server and transmits and receives VTP updates on its trunks, but you cannot create, change, or delete VLANs on a VTP client. VLANs are configured on another switch in the domain that is in server mode.”

QUESTION 20
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 21
A network engineer is verifying Layer 2 connectivity of a server to a Cisco Nexus switch by checking the Address Resolution table statistics. Which command shows the MAC address, physical interfaced, VLAN and IP address of a server on a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. show Ip arp interface
B. show Ip arp
C. show Ip arp detail
D. show arp detail
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
What describes how the 802.1Q protocol lactates the transmission of multiple Layer 2 networks on a single link?
A. adds 802.1Q tag information between the source MAC address and the Ether Type/Length fields
B. encapsulates the frame inside an 802.1Q tunnel
C. adds 802.1Q tag information between the preamble and the destination MAC address
D. encapsulates the packet inside an 802.1Q tunnel
E. transparently directs packets based on 802.1Q tags inside the header
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
200-150 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which command allows the Cisco Nexus 5000 switch to continue to start up?
A. switch(boot)# load n5000-uk9.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
B. switch(boot)# configure terminalswitch(boot-config)# admin-password Cisco123
C. switch(boot)# load n5000-uk9-kickstart.5.2.1.N1.4.bin
D. switch(boot)# load system-latest
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
A network engineer is changing the boot process of a router from its original state to one that boots from ROMMON. Which option in Cisco IOS should be changed?
A. config register number
B. RMON
C. bootflash settings
D. terminal history
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 26
A customer requires two separate physical pathways between multiple initiators and multiple targets. Which technology meets this requirement on a single Cisco MDS9148 switch?
A. zoning
B. port security
C. LUN masking
D. VSANs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which two options are benefits of deploying FCoE beyond the access layer?
A. higher throughput compared to native Fibre Channel switches.
B. FCoE cannot be deployed beyond the access layer.
C. reduction in equipment requirements.
D. improved security compared to traditional Fibre Channel.
E. increased application support.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 28
What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 29
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding based on destination IP address? 200-150 dumps (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC

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New Cisco Others 300-560 Dumps Exam Real Practice Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which statement is true when adding a network to an access control rule?
A. You can select only source networks.
B. You must have preconfigured the network as an object.
C. You can select the source and destination networks or network groups.
D. You cannot include multiple networks or network groups as sources or destinations.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which option is true when configuring an access control rule?
A. You can use geolocation criteria to specify source IP addresses by country and continent, as well as destination IP addresses by country and continent.
B. You can use geolocation criteria to specify destination IP addresses by country but not source IP addresses.
C. You can use geolocation criteria to specify source and destination IP addresses by country but not by continent.
D. You can use geolocation criteria to specify source and destination IP addresses by continent but not by country.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
How do you configure URL filtering?
A. Add blocked URLs to the global blacklist.
B. Create a Security Intelligence object that contains the blocked URLs and add the object to the access control policy.
C. Create an access control rule and, on the URLs tab, select the URLs or URL categories that are to be blocked or allowed.
D. Create a variable.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
When adding source and destination ports in the Ports tab of the access control policy rule editor, which restriction is in place?
A. The protocol is restricted to TCP only.
B. The protocol is restricted to UDP only.
C. The protocol is restricted to TCP or UDP.
D. The protocol is restricted to TCP and UDP.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Access control policy rules can be configured to block based on the conditions that you specify in each rule. Which behavior block response do you use if you want to deny and reset the connection of HTTP traffic that meets the conditions of the access control rule?
A. interactive block with reset
B. interactive block
C. block
D. block with reset
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which option transmits policy-based alerts such as SNMP and syslog?
A. the Defense Center
B. FireSIGHT
C. the managed device
D. the host
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
One of the goals of geolocation is to identify which option?
A. the location of any IP address
B. the location of a MAC address
C. the location of a TCP connection
D. the location of a routable IP address
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
300-560 dumps Which option is not a characteristic of dashboard widgets or Context Explorer?
A. Context Explorer is a tool used primarily by analysts looking for trends across varying periods of time.
B. Context Explorer can be added as a widget to a dashboard.
C. Widgets offer users an at-a-glance view of their environment.
D. Widgets are offered to all users, whereas Context Explorer is limited to a few roles.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which option is true of the Packet Information portion of the Packet View screen?
A. provides a table view of events
B. allows you to download a PCAP formatted file of the session that triggered the event
C. displays packet data in a format based on TCP/IP layers
D. shows you the user that triggered the event
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
When you are editing an intrusion policy, how do you know that you have changes?
A. The Commit Changes button is enabled.
B. A system message notifies you.
C. You are prompted to save your changes on every screen refresh.
D. A yellow, triangular icon displays next to the Policy Information option in the navigation panel.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which network management protocol relies on multiple connections between a managed device and the management station where such connections can be independently initiated by either side?
A. SSH
B. SNMP
C. Telnet
D. NetFlow
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
When an IDS generates an alert for a correctly detected network attack, what is this event called?
A. false positive
B. true negative
C. true positive
D. false negative
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
When is it recommended to establish a traffic profile baseline for your network?
A. outside of normal production hours
B. during a DDoS attack
C. during normal production hours
D. during monthly file server backup
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which two activities would you typically be expected to perform as a Network Security Analyst? (Choose two.)
A. Verify user login credentials.
B. Troubleshoot firewall performance.
C. Monitor database applications.
D. Create security policies on routers.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
Which protocol is typically considered critical for LAN operation?
A. BGP
B. ARP
C. SMTP
D. GRE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which two measures would you recommend to reduce the likelihood of a successfully executed network attack from the Internet? (Choose two.)
A. Completely disconnect the network from the Internet.
B. Deploy a stateful edge firewall.
C. Buy an insurance policy against attack-related business losses.
D. Implement a password management policy for remote users.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Which attack exploits incorrect boundary checking in network software?
A. Slowloris
B. buffer overflow
C. man-in-the-middle
D. Smurf
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Where should you report suspected security vulnerability in Cisco router software?
A. Cisco TAC
B. Cisco IOS Engineering
C. Cisco PSIRT
D. Cisco SIO
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
When investigating potential network security issues, which two pieces of useful information would be found in a syslog message? 300-560 dumps (Choose two.)
A. product serial number
B. MAC address
C. IP address
D. product model number
E. broadcast address
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 20
Which command would provide you with interface status information on a Cisco IOS router?
A. show status interface
B. show running-config
C. show ip interface brief
D. show interface snmp
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which option is used to implement suppression in the Rule Management user interface?
A. Rule Category
B. Global
C. Source
D. Protocol
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Host criticality is an example of which option?
A. a default whitelist
B. a default traffic profile
C. a host attribute
D. a correlation policy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
FireSIGHT uses three primary types of detection to understand the environment in which it is deployed.
Which option is one of the detection types?
A. protocol layer
B. application
C. objects
D. devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
When configuring FireSIGHT detection, an administrator would create a network discovery policy and set the action to “discover”. Which option is a possible type of discovery?
A. host
B. IPS event
C. anti-malware
D. networks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which option is derived from the discovery component of FireSIGHT technology?
A. connection event table view
B. network profile
C. host profile
D. authentication objects
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
The IP address::/0 is equivalent to which IPv4 address and netmask?
A. 0.0.0.0
B. 0.0.0.0/0
C. 0.0.0.0/24
D. The IP address::/0 is not valid IPv6 syntax.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
FireSIGHT recommendations appear in which layer of the Policy Layers page?
A. Layer Summary
B. User Layers
C. Built-In Layers
D. FireSIGHT recommendations do not show up as a layer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
A server administrator tells you that the server network is potentially under attack. Which piece of information is critical to begin your network investigation?
A. cabinet location of the servers
B. administrator password for the servers
C. OS that is used on the servers
D. IP addresses/subnets used for the servers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Which describes the best method for preserving the chain of evidence? 300-560 dumps
A. Shut down the machine that is infected, remove the hard drive, and contact the local authorities.
B. Back up the hard drive, use antivirus software to clean the infected machine, and contact the local authorities.
C. Identify the infected machine, disconnect from the network, and contact the local authorities.
D. Allow user(s) to perform any business-critical tasks while waiting for local authorities.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which will be provided as output when issuing the show processes cpu command on a Cisco IOS router?
A. router configuration
B. CPU utilization of device
C. memory used by device processes
D. interface processing statistics
Correct Answer: B

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Useful Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which set of commands is recommended to prevent the use of a hub in the access layer?
A. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
B. switch(config-if)#switchport mode trunk switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
C. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1
D. switch(config-if)#switchport mode access switch(config-if)#switchport port-security mac-address 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 4
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
C. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
D. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
E. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two.)
A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
E. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. 200-125 dumps What configuration on the Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
When a router undergoes the exchange protocol within OSPF, in what order does it pass through each state?
A. exstart state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state
B. exstart state andgt; exchange state andgt; loading state andgt; full state
C. exstart state andgt; full state andgt; loading state andgt; exchange state
D. loading state andgt; exchange state andgt; full state andgt; exstart state
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which statement about slow inter VLAN forwarding is true?
A. The VLAN is experiencing slowness in the point-to-point collisionless connection.
B. The VLANs are experiencing slowness because multiple devices are connected to the same hub.
C. The local VLAN is working normally, but traffic to the alternate VLAN is forwarded slower than expected.
D. The entire VLAN is experiencing slowness.
E. The VLANs are experiencing slowness due to a duplex mismatch.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
which two steps must you perform to enbale router-on-stick on a switch ?(choose two)
A. connect the router to a trunk port
B. config the subint number exactly the same as the matching VLAN
C. config full duplex
D. cofigure an ip route to the vlan destn net
E. assign the access port to the vlan
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
A. Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
B. Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
C. Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.
D. Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
E. Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
F. Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 12
Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)
A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 13
which three technical services support cloud computing ?
A. network-monitored power sources
B. layer 3 network routing
C. ip localization
D. redundant connections
E. VPN connectivity
F. extended SAN services
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 14
Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?
A. administrative distance
B. next hop
C. metric
D. routing protocol code
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
B. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
C. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 0 10
D. SW1(config-line)#absolute-timeout 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
A. Router loopback address
B. Router IP address
C. Router priority
D. Router tracking number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B
B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B
C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B
D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B
E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 18
Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
A security administrator wants to profile endpoints and gain visibility into attempted authentications. Which 802.1x mode allows these actions?
A. Monitor mode
B. High-Security mode
C. Low-impact mode
D. Closed mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which three are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk? (Choose three.)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 22
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 23
While troubleshooting a connection problem on a computer, you determined that the computer can ping a specific web server but it cannot connect to TCP port 80 on that server. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
A. A VLAN number is incorrect.
B. A Route is missing
C. An ARP table entry is missing.
D. An ACL is blocking the TCP port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.)
A. They use ICMPv6 type 134.
B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits.
C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits.
D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address.
E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Refer to the graphic.
200-125 dumps
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
200-125 dumps
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 27
Which three circumstances can cause a GRE tunnel to be in an up/down state? (Choose three.)
A. The tunnel interface IP address is misconfigured.
B. The tunnel interface is down.
C. A valid route to the destination address is missing from the routing table.
D. The tunnel address is routed through the tunnel itself.
E. The ISP is blocking the traffic.
F. An ACL is blocking the outbound traffic.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 28
Which feature is config by setting a variance that is at least 2 times the metric?
A. unequal cost load balancing
B. path selection
C. equal cost load balancing
D. path count
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer?(Choose three)
A. Session
B. transport
C. presentation
D. application
E. data-link
F. network
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 30
When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table,how dose it handle the pacet?
A. It sends the packet to the next hop address
B. It sends the packet to the gateway of last resort
C. It discards the packet
D. It sends the packet over the route with the best metric
Correct Answer: B

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Latest CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following technologies can store multi-tenant data with different security requirements?
A. Data loss prevention
B. Trusted platform module
C. Hard drive encryption
D. Cloud computing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following wireless security technologies continuously supplies new keys for WEP?
A. TKIP
B. Mac filtering
C. WPA2
D. WPA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?
A. Review past security incidents and their resolution
B. Rewrite the existing security policy
C. Implement an intrusion prevention system
D. Install honey pot systems
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Review the following diagram depicting communication between PC1 and PC2 on each side of a router.
Analyze the network traffic logs which show communication between the two computers as captured by the computer with IP 10.2.2.10.
DIAGRAM
PC1 PC2
[192.168.1.30]——–[INSIDE 192.168.1.1 router OUTSIDE 10.2.2.1]———[10.2.2.10] LOGS
10:30:22, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, SYN
10:30:23, SRC 10.2.2.10:80, DST 10.2.2.1:3030, SYN/ACK
10:30:24, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, ACK Given the above information, which of the following can be inferred about the above environment?
A. 192.168.1.30 is a web server.
B. The web server listens on a non-standard port.
C. The router filters port 80 traffic.
D. The router implements NAT.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Pete, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into the network. Which of the following is designed to stop an intrusion on the network?
A. NIPS
B. HIDS
C. HIPS
D. NIDS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
After an assessment, auditors recommended that an application hosting company should contract with additional data providers for redundant high speed Internet connections. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this recommendation? (Select TWO).
A. To allow load balancing for cloud support
B. To allow for business continuity if one provider goes out of business
C. To eliminate a single point of failure
D. To allow for a hot site in case of disaster
E. To improve intranet communication speeds
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
The Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has tasked The Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) to develop and update all Internal Operating Procedures and Standard Operating Procedures documentation in order to successfully respond to future incidents. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following stages of the Incident Handling process is the team working on?
A. Lessons Learned
B. Eradication
C. Recovery
D. Preparation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Used in conjunction, which of the following are PII? (Select TWO).
A. Marital status
B. Favorite movie
C. Pet’s name
D. Birthday
E. Full name
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
A victim is logged onto a popular home router forum site in order to troubleshoot some router configuration issues. The router is a fairly standard configuration and has an IP address of 192.168.1.1. The victim is logged into their router administrative interface in one tab and clicks a forum link in another tab. Due to clicking the forum link, the home router reboots. Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred?
A. Brute force password attack
B. Cross-site request forgery
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Fuzzing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A recent spike in virus detections has been attributed to end-users visiting www.compnay.com. The business has an established relationship with an organization using the URL of www.company.com but not with the site that has been causing the infections. Which of the following would BEST describe this type of attack?
A. Typo squatting
B. Session hijacking
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Spear phishing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following attacks impact the availability of a system? (Select TWO).
A. Smurf
B. Phishing
C. Spim
D. DDoS
E. Spoofing
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
A database administrator receives a call on an outside telephone line from a person who states that they work for a well-known database vendor. The caller states there have been problems applying the newly released vulnerability patch for their database system, and asks what version is being used so that they can assist. Which of the following is the BEST action for the administrator to take?
A. Thank the caller, report the contact to the manager, and contact the vendor support line to verify any reported patch issues.
B. Obtain the vendor’s email and phone number and call them back after identifying the number of systems affected by the patch.
C. Give the caller the database version and patch level so that they can receive help applying the patch.
D. Call the police to report the contact about the database systems, and then check system logs for attack attempts.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An IT security technician is actively involved in identifying coding issues for her company.
Which of the following is an application security technique that can be used to identify unknown weaknesses within the code?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Denial of service
C. Fuzzing
D. Port scanning
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
The systems administrator wishes to implement a hardware-based encryption method that could also be used to sign code. They can achieve this by:
A. Utilizing the already present TPM.
B. Configuring secure application sandboxes.
C. Enforcing whole disk encryption.
D. Moving data and applications into the cloud.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
It has been discovered that students are using kiosk tablets intended for registration and scheduling to play games and utilize instant messaging. SY0-401 dumps Which of the following could BEST eliminate this issue?
A. Device encryption
B. Application control
C. Content filtering
D. Screen-locks
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which of the following will allow Pete, a security analyst, to trigger a security alert because of a tracking cookie?
A. Network based firewall
B. Anti-spam software
C. Host based firewall
D. Anti-spyware software
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A system administrator needs to ensure that certain departments have more restrictive controls to their shared folders than other departments. Which of the following security controls would be implemented to restrict those departments?
A. User assigned privileges
B. Password disablement
C. Multiple account creation
D. Group based privileges
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which of the following is the BEST reason for placing a password lock on a mobile device?
A. Prevents an unauthorized user from accessing owner’s data
B. Enables remote wipe capabilities
C. Stops an unauthorized user from using the device again
D. Prevents an unauthorized user from making phone calls
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is an XML based open standard used in the exchange of authentication and authorization information between different parties?
A. LDAP
B. SAML
C. TACACS+
D. Kerberos
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Several employee accounts appear to have been cracked by an attacker. Which of the following should the security administrator implement to mitigate password cracking attacks? (Select TWO).
A. Increase password complexity
B. Deploy an IDS to capture suspicious logins
C. Implement password history
D. Implement monitoring of logins
E. Implement password expiration
F. Increase password length
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 22
To ensure compatibility with their flagship product, the security engineer is tasked to recommend an encryption cipher that will be compatible with the majority of third party software and hardware vendors.
Which of the following should be recommended?
A. SHA
B. MD5
C. Blowfish
D. AES
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
While setting up a secure wireless corporate network, which of the following should Pete, an administrator, avoid implementing?
A. EAP-TLS
B. PEAP
C. WEP
D. WPA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which of the following protocols uses an asymmetric key to open a session and then establishes a symmetric key for the remainder of the session?
A. SFTP
B. HTTPS
C. TFTP
D. TLS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
The IT department has installed new wireless access points but discovers that the signal extends far into the parking lot. Which of the following actions should be taken to correct this?
A. Disable the SSID broadcasting
B. Configure the access points so that MAC filtering is not used
C. Implement WEP encryption on the access points
D. Lower the power for office coverage onl
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
A risk assessment team is concerned about hosting data with a cloud service provider (CSP) which of the following findings would justify this concern?
A. The CPS utilizes encryption for data at rest and in motion
B. The CSP takes into account multinational privacy concerns
C. The financial review indicates the company is a startup
D. SLA state service tickets will be resolved in less than 15 minutes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
A computer on a company network was infected with a zero-day exploit after an employee accidently opened an email that contained malicious content. SY0-401 dumps The employee recognized the email as malicious and was attempting to delete it, but accidently opened it. Which of the following should be done to prevent this scenario from occurring again in the future?
A. Install host-based firewalls on all computers that have an email client installed
B. Set the email program default to open messages in plain text
C. Install end-point protection on all computers that access web email
D. Create new email spam filters to delete all messages from that sender
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
A small IT security form has an internal network composed of laptops, servers, and printers. The network has both wired and wireless segments and supports VPN access from remote sites. To protect the network from internal and external threats, including social engineering attacks, the company decides to implement stringent security controls. Which of the following lists is the BEST combination of security controls to implement?
A. Disable SSID broadcast, require full disk encryption on servers, laptop, and personally owned electronic devices, enable MAC filtering on WAPs, require photographic ID to enter the building.
B. Enable port security; divide the network into segments for servers, laptops, public and remote users; apply ACLs to all network equipment; enable MAC filtering on WAPs; and require two-factor authentication for network access.
C. Divide the network into segments for servers, laptops, public and remote users; require the use of one time pads for network key exchange and access; enable MAC filtering ACLs on all servers.
D. Enable SSID broadcast on a honeynet; install monitoring software on all corporate equipment’ install CCTVs to deter social engineering; enable SE Linux in permissive mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
A security guard has informed the Chief information Security Officer that a person with a tablet has been walking around the building. The guard also noticed strange white markings in different areas of the parking lot. The person is attempting which of the following types of attacks?
A. Jamming
B. War chalking
C. Packet sniffing
D. Near field communication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A security Operations Center was scanning a subnet for infections and found a contaminated machine.
One of the administrators disabled the switch port that the machine was connected to, and informed a local technician of the infection. Which of the following steps did the administrator perform?
A. Escalation
B. Identification
C. Notification
D. Quarantine
E. Preparation
Correct Answer: CD

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